Show that $|f(x)-L|leq K|x-c| implieslim_{xto c} f(x)=L$











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Let $I$ be an interval in $mathbb{R}$ such that $f:Irightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a function and let $cin I.$
Show that $|f(x)-L|leq K|x-c| implieslim_{xto c} f(x)=L$



Proof:



Suppose w.l.o.g. that $K>0$. Then we have $K|x-c|>0$ since $|x-c|>0$. Now since $xin I$ and $cin I$, $existsepsilon>0$ S.t. $|x-c|<frac{epsilon}{K}$; we can make the distance between $x$ and $c$ as small as we like. Therefore by assumption, $$|f(x)-L|<K|x-c|<K(frac{epsilon}{K})=epsilon$$



Whence, we conclude since $epsilon$ was arbitrary, that $lim_{xto c}f(x)=L$. $blacksquare$



Is this proof valid?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Realize that $K$ cannot be negative. This is a Lipschitz-type inequality.
    – Sean Roberson
    Nov 17 at 0:10















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $I$ be an interval in $mathbb{R}$ such that $f:Irightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a function and let $cin I.$
Show that $|f(x)-L|leq K|x-c| implieslim_{xto c} f(x)=L$



Proof:



Suppose w.l.o.g. that $K>0$. Then we have $K|x-c|>0$ since $|x-c|>0$. Now since $xin I$ and $cin I$, $existsepsilon>0$ S.t. $|x-c|<frac{epsilon}{K}$; we can make the distance between $x$ and $c$ as small as we like. Therefore by assumption, $$|f(x)-L|<K|x-c|<K(frac{epsilon}{K})=epsilon$$



Whence, we conclude since $epsilon$ was arbitrary, that $lim_{xto c}f(x)=L$. $blacksquare$



Is this proof valid?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Realize that $K$ cannot be negative. This is a Lipschitz-type inequality.
    – Sean Roberson
    Nov 17 at 0:10













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $I$ be an interval in $mathbb{R}$ such that $f:Irightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a function and let $cin I.$
Show that $|f(x)-L|leq K|x-c| implieslim_{xto c} f(x)=L$



Proof:



Suppose w.l.o.g. that $K>0$. Then we have $K|x-c|>0$ since $|x-c|>0$. Now since $xin I$ and $cin I$, $existsepsilon>0$ S.t. $|x-c|<frac{epsilon}{K}$; we can make the distance between $x$ and $c$ as small as we like. Therefore by assumption, $$|f(x)-L|<K|x-c|<K(frac{epsilon}{K})=epsilon$$



Whence, we conclude since $epsilon$ was arbitrary, that $lim_{xto c}f(x)=L$. $blacksquare$



Is this proof valid?










share|cite|improve this question















Let $I$ be an interval in $mathbb{R}$ such that $f:Irightarrowmathbb{R}$ is a function and let $cin I.$
Show that $|f(x)-L|leq K|x-c| implieslim_{xto c} f(x)=L$



Proof:



Suppose w.l.o.g. that $K>0$. Then we have $K|x-c|>0$ since $|x-c|>0$. Now since $xin I$ and $cin I$, $existsepsilon>0$ S.t. $|x-c|<frac{epsilon}{K}$; we can make the distance between $x$ and $c$ as small as we like. Therefore by assumption, $$|f(x)-L|<K|x-c|<K(frac{epsilon}{K})=epsilon$$



Whence, we conclude since $epsilon$ was arbitrary, that $lim_{xto c}f(x)=L$. $blacksquare$



Is this proof valid?







real-analysis limits proof-verification lipschitz-functions






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edited Nov 17 at 0:28









Scientifica

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6,04141332










asked Nov 17 at 0:04









coreyman317

681218




681218












  • Realize that $K$ cannot be negative. This is a Lipschitz-type inequality.
    – Sean Roberson
    Nov 17 at 0:10


















  • Realize that $K$ cannot be negative. This is a Lipschitz-type inequality.
    – Sean Roberson
    Nov 17 at 0:10
















Realize that $K$ cannot be negative. This is a Lipschitz-type inequality.
– Sean Roberson
Nov 17 at 0:10




Realize that $K$ cannot be negative. This is a Lipschitz-type inequality.
– Sean Roberson
Nov 17 at 0:10










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










You have the right ideas, well done! But unfortunately there are some points in the proof that are wrong.



You say that $K|x-c|>0$ because $|x-c|>0$. But if you take $x=c$, this is no longer true.



You also say that $existsvarepsilon>0,|x-c|<dfrac{varepsilon}{K}$. This statement is true, but it doesn't mean that $varepsilon$ can be as small as you want unlike what you said. In fact, such an $varepsilon$ has to satisfy $K|x-c|<varepsilon$, so epsilon can't be as small as, say, $frac{1}{2}K|x-c|$. The statement also is of the form $existsvarepsilon$, so $varepsilon$ is not arbitrary, but rather specifically chosen.



Here's what you want to prove:



$$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon.$$



So the natural way to start your proof is: Let $varepsilon>0$. Now that's a truly arbitrary. So what you need to prove is this:



$$existsdelta>0,forall xin I,|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon.$$



And here, your choice of $delta=dfrac{varepsilon}{K}$ does the work.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I thought in the definition of a limit, we take $c$ to be a cluster point which implies $xneq c$?
    – coreyman317
    Nov 17 at 0:30










  • @coreyman317 You're right, but what you wrote is $cin I$ and $xin I$ so $|x-c|>0$, which is wrong because we can take $x=c$ without any problem.
    – Scientifica
    Nov 17 at 0:37






  • 1




    @coreyman317 Let me correct my comment. You're right in saying that we take $c$ to be a cluster point, which implies that no matter how close you get to $c$, you can take $xneq c$. But you can also pick $x=c$. On the other hand, if you explicitly write "now let $xin Ibackslash{c}$", then indeed $xneq c$. By the way, I just saw that some define limit as: $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,0<|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon,$$ which makes more sense tbh. If that's the case, then there's no need to assume that $|x-c|>0$.
    – Scientifica
    Nov 17 at 0:46












  • Thank you @Scientifica
    – coreyman317
    Nov 17 at 1:01










  • @coreyman317 It's a pleasure :)
    – Scientifica
    Nov 17 at 11:59


















up vote
1
down vote













Yes it is valid once you take into account Sean Roberson's comment that $K>0$. Then for $f:I rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that for some $c in I$ and some $L in mathbb{R}$, we have that $|f(x) - L| leq K |x - c|$. For any $epsilon > 0$, choose any $x in I$ close enough to $c$ such that $|x - c| < epsilon$. Then
$$|f(x) - L| leq K |x - c| < Kcdot epsilon.
$$

Now let us set $tilde{epsilon} := Kcdot epsilon > 0$, then for any $x$ close enough to $c$ such that $| x - c| < epsilon$, this implies that $|f(x) - L| < tilde{epsilon}$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    You have the right ideas, well done! But unfortunately there are some points in the proof that are wrong.



    You say that $K|x-c|>0$ because $|x-c|>0$. But if you take $x=c$, this is no longer true.



    You also say that $existsvarepsilon>0,|x-c|<dfrac{varepsilon}{K}$. This statement is true, but it doesn't mean that $varepsilon$ can be as small as you want unlike what you said. In fact, such an $varepsilon$ has to satisfy $K|x-c|<varepsilon$, so epsilon can't be as small as, say, $frac{1}{2}K|x-c|$. The statement also is of the form $existsvarepsilon$, so $varepsilon$ is not arbitrary, but rather specifically chosen.



    Here's what you want to prove:



    $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon.$$



    So the natural way to start your proof is: Let $varepsilon>0$. Now that's a truly arbitrary. So what you need to prove is this:



    $$existsdelta>0,forall xin I,|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon.$$



    And here, your choice of $delta=dfrac{varepsilon}{K}$ does the work.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • I thought in the definition of a limit, we take $c$ to be a cluster point which implies $xneq c$?
      – coreyman317
      Nov 17 at 0:30










    • @coreyman317 You're right, but what you wrote is $cin I$ and $xin I$ so $|x-c|>0$, which is wrong because we can take $x=c$ without any problem.
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 0:37






    • 1




      @coreyman317 Let me correct my comment. You're right in saying that we take $c$ to be a cluster point, which implies that no matter how close you get to $c$, you can take $xneq c$. But you can also pick $x=c$. On the other hand, if you explicitly write "now let $xin Ibackslash{c}$", then indeed $xneq c$. By the way, I just saw that some define limit as: $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,0<|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon,$$ which makes more sense tbh. If that's the case, then there's no need to assume that $|x-c|>0$.
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 0:46












    • Thank you @Scientifica
      – coreyman317
      Nov 17 at 1:01










    • @coreyman317 It's a pleasure :)
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 11:59















    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    You have the right ideas, well done! But unfortunately there are some points in the proof that are wrong.



    You say that $K|x-c|>0$ because $|x-c|>0$. But if you take $x=c$, this is no longer true.



    You also say that $existsvarepsilon>0,|x-c|<dfrac{varepsilon}{K}$. This statement is true, but it doesn't mean that $varepsilon$ can be as small as you want unlike what you said. In fact, such an $varepsilon$ has to satisfy $K|x-c|<varepsilon$, so epsilon can't be as small as, say, $frac{1}{2}K|x-c|$. The statement also is of the form $existsvarepsilon$, so $varepsilon$ is not arbitrary, but rather specifically chosen.



    Here's what you want to prove:



    $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon.$$



    So the natural way to start your proof is: Let $varepsilon>0$. Now that's a truly arbitrary. So what you need to prove is this:



    $$existsdelta>0,forall xin I,|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon.$$



    And here, your choice of $delta=dfrac{varepsilon}{K}$ does the work.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • I thought in the definition of a limit, we take $c$ to be a cluster point which implies $xneq c$?
      – coreyman317
      Nov 17 at 0:30










    • @coreyman317 You're right, but what you wrote is $cin I$ and $xin I$ so $|x-c|>0$, which is wrong because we can take $x=c$ without any problem.
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 0:37






    • 1




      @coreyman317 Let me correct my comment. You're right in saying that we take $c$ to be a cluster point, which implies that no matter how close you get to $c$, you can take $xneq c$. But you can also pick $x=c$. On the other hand, if you explicitly write "now let $xin Ibackslash{c}$", then indeed $xneq c$. By the way, I just saw that some define limit as: $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,0<|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon,$$ which makes more sense tbh. If that's the case, then there's no need to assume that $|x-c|>0$.
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 0:46












    • Thank you @Scientifica
      – coreyman317
      Nov 17 at 1:01










    • @coreyman317 It's a pleasure :)
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 11:59













    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted






    You have the right ideas, well done! But unfortunately there are some points in the proof that are wrong.



    You say that $K|x-c|>0$ because $|x-c|>0$. But if you take $x=c$, this is no longer true.



    You also say that $existsvarepsilon>0,|x-c|<dfrac{varepsilon}{K}$. This statement is true, but it doesn't mean that $varepsilon$ can be as small as you want unlike what you said. In fact, such an $varepsilon$ has to satisfy $K|x-c|<varepsilon$, so epsilon can't be as small as, say, $frac{1}{2}K|x-c|$. The statement also is of the form $existsvarepsilon$, so $varepsilon$ is not arbitrary, but rather specifically chosen.



    Here's what you want to prove:



    $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon.$$



    So the natural way to start your proof is: Let $varepsilon>0$. Now that's a truly arbitrary. So what you need to prove is this:



    $$existsdelta>0,forall xin I,|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon.$$



    And here, your choice of $delta=dfrac{varepsilon}{K}$ does the work.






    share|cite|improve this answer












    You have the right ideas, well done! But unfortunately there are some points in the proof that are wrong.



    You say that $K|x-c|>0$ because $|x-c|>0$. But if you take $x=c$, this is no longer true.



    You also say that $existsvarepsilon>0,|x-c|<dfrac{varepsilon}{K}$. This statement is true, but it doesn't mean that $varepsilon$ can be as small as you want unlike what you said. In fact, such an $varepsilon$ has to satisfy $K|x-c|<varepsilon$, so epsilon can't be as small as, say, $frac{1}{2}K|x-c|$. The statement also is of the form $existsvarepsilon$, so $varepsilon$ is not arbitrary, but rather specifically chosen.



    Here's what you want to prove:



    $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon.$$



    So the natural way to start your proof is: Let $varepsilon>0$. Now that's a truly arbitrary. So what you need to prove is this:



    $$existsdelta>0,forall xin I,|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon.$$



    And here, your choice of $delta=dfrac{varepsilon}{K}$ does the work.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Nov 17 at 0:28









    Scientifica

    6,04141332




    6,04141332












    • I thought in the definition of a limit, we take $c$ to be a cluster point which implies $xneq c$?
      – coreyman317
      Nov 17 at 0:30










    • @coreyman317 You're right, but what you wrote is $cin I$ and $xin I$ so $|x-c|>0$, which is wrong because we can take $x=c$ without any problem.
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 0:37






    • 1




      @coreyman317 Let me correct my comment. You're right in saying that we take $c$ to be a cluster point, which implies that no matter how close you get to $c$, you can take $xneq c$. But you can also pick $x=c$. On the other hand, if you explicitly write "now let $xin Ibackslash{c}$", then indeed $xneq c$. By the way, I just saw that some define limit as: $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,0<|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon,$$ which makes more sense tbh. If that's the case, then there's no need to assume that $|x-c|>0$.
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 0:46












    • Thank you @Scientifica
      – coreyman317
      Nov 17 at 1:01










    • @coreyman317 It's a pleasure :)
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 11:59


















    • I thought in the definition of a limit, we take $c$ to be a cluster point which implies $xneq c$?
      – coreyman317
      Nov 17 at 0:30










    • @coreyman317 You're right, but what you wrote is $cin I$ and $xin I$ so $|x-c|>0$, which is wrong because we can take $x=c$ without any problem.
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 0:37






    • 1




      @coreyman317 Let me correct my comment. You're right in saying that we take $c$ to be a cluster point, which implies that no matter how close you get to $c$, you can take $xneq c$. But you can also pick $x=c$. On the other hand, if you explicitly write "now let $xin Ibackslash{c}$", then indeed $xneq c$. By the way, I just saw that some define limit as: $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,0<|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon,$$ which makes more sense tbh. If that's the case, then there's no need to assume that $|x-c|>0$.
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 0:46












    • Thank you @Scientifica
      – coreyman317
      Nov 17 at 1:01










    • @coreyman317 It's a pleasure :)
      – Scientifica
      Nov 17 at 11:59
















    I thought in the definition of a limit, we take $c$ to be a cluster point which implies $xneq c$?
    – coreyman317
    Nov 17 at 0:30




    I thought in the definition of a limit, we take $c$ to be a cluster point which implies $xneq c$?
    – coreyman317
    Nov 17 at 0:30












    @coreyman317 You're right, but what you wrote is $cin I$ and $xin I$ so $|x-c|>0$, which is wrong because we can take $x=c$ without any problem.
    – Scientifica
    Nov 17 at 0:37




    @coreyman317 You're right, but what you wrote is $cin I$ and $xin I$ so $|x-c|>0$, which is wrong because we can take $x=c$ without any problem.
    – Scientifica
    Nov 17 at 0:37




    1




    1




    @coreyman317 Let me correct my comment. You're right in saying that we take $c$ to be a cluster point, which implies that no matter how close you get to $c$, you can take $xneq c$. But you can also pick $x=c$. On the other hand, if you explicitly write "now let $xin Ibackslash{c}$", then indeed $xneq c$. By the way, I just saw that some define limit as: $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,0<|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon,$$ which makes more sense tbh. If that's the case, then there's no need to assume that $|x-c|>0$.
    – Scientifica
    Nov 17 at 0:46






    @coreyman317 Let me correct my comment. You're right in saying that we take $c$ to be a cluster point, which implies that no matter how close you get to $c$, you can take $xneq c$. But you can also pick $x=c$. On the other hand, if you explicitly write "now let $xin Ibackslash{c}$", then indeed $xneq c$. By the way, I just saw that some define limit as: $$forallvarepsilon>0,existsdelta>0,forall xin I,0<|x-c|<deltaimplies |f(x)-L|<varepsilon,$$ which makes more sense tbh. If that's the case, then there's no need to assume that $|x-c|>0$.
    – Scientifica
    Nov 17 at 0:46














    Thank you @Scientifica
    – coreyman317
    Nov 17 at 1:01




    Thank you @Scientifica
    – coreyman317
    Nov 17 at 1:01












    @coreyman317 It's a pleasure :)
    – Scientifica
    Nov 17 at 11:59




    @coreyman317 It's a pleasure :)
    – Scientifica
    Nov 17 at 11:59










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Yes it is valid once you take into account Sean Roberson's comment that $K>0$. Then for $f:I rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that for some $c in I$ and some $L in mathbb{R}$, we have that $|f(x) - L| leq K |x - c|$. For any $epsilon > 0$, choose any $x in I$ close enough to $c$ such that $|x - c| < epsilon$. Then
    $$|f(x) - L| leq K |x - c| < Kcdot epsilon.
    $$

    Now let us set $tilde{epsilon} := Kcdot epsilon > 0$, then for any $x$ close enough to $c$ such that $| x - c| < epsilon$, this implies that $|f(x) - L| < tilde{epsilon}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Yes it is valid once you take into account Sean Roberson's comment that $K>0$. Then for $f:I rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that for some $c in I$ and some $L in mathbb{R}$, we have that $|f(x) - L| leq K |x - c|$. For any $epsilon > 0$, choose any $x in I$ close enough to $c$ such that $|x - c| < epsilon$. Then
      $$|f(x) - L| leq K |x - c| < Kcdot epsilon.
      $$

      Now let us set $tilde{epsilon} := Kcdot epsilon > 0$, then for any $x$ close enough to $c$ such that $| x - c| < epsilon$, this implies that $|f(x) - L| < tilde{epsilon}$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Yes it is valid once you take into account Sean Roberson's comment that $K>0$. Then for $f:I rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that for some $c in I$ and some $L in mathbb{R}$, we have that $|f(x) - L| leq K |x - c|$. For any $epsilon > 0$, choose any $x in I$ close enough to $c$ such that $|x - c| < epsilon$. Then
        $$|f(x) - L| leq K |x - c| < Kcdot epsilon.
        $$

        Now let us set $tilde{epsilon} := Kcdot epsilon > 0$, then for any $x$ close enough to $c$ such that $| x - c| < epsilon$, this implies that $|f(x) - L| < tilde{epsilon}$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Yes it is valid once you take into account Sean Roberson's comment that $K>0$. Then for $f:I rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that for some $c in I$ and some $L in mathbb{R}$, we have that $|f(x) - L| leq K |x - c|$. For any $epsilon > 0$, choose any $x in I$ close enough to $c$ such that $|x - c| < epsilon$. Then
        $$|f(x) - L| leq K |x - c| < Kcdot epsilon.
        $$

        Now let us set $tilde{epsilon} := Kcdot epsilon > 0$, then for any $x$ close enough to $c$ such that $| x - c| < epsilon$, this implies that $|f(x) - L| < tilde{epsilon}$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 17 at 0:30









        BenCWBrown

        3557




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