When, if ever, are arpeggiated six-four chords really “real”?











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Textbooks traditionally teach that there are four types of six-four (i.e., second inversion) chords:




  1. Pedal six-four (also sometimes called neighbor), where the bass stays the same;

  2. Passing six-four, where the bass functions as a passing note between two harmonies;

  3. Cadential six-four, a specific type of pedal six-four that occurs over scale-degree 5;

  4. Arpeggiated six-four, where the bass arpeggiates the given harmony.


I've always been a little skeptical of the arpeggiated six-four—in the interests of full disclosure, I just plain don't think it even exists—and I'm unsure why we view some six-four chords as arpeggiated and others as just expanding a more stable inversion of the chord.



Consider, for instance, the following two examples:



enter image description here



The above Beethoven example is almost invariably cited in textbooks as a perfect example of the arpeggiated six-four. Here, I've labeled these chords with asterisks below the staff.



But to me, the Beethoven example is hardly any different from the following Mozart example, and no one in their right mind would label every inversion of this Alberti bass:



enter image description here



Can anyone explain to me the logic here? It can't be an issue of tempo or the rate of pitch change, because that doesn't matter in other aspects of tonal theory.






theory chords chord-inversions







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    Textbooks traditionally teach that there are four types of six-four (i.e., second inversion) chords:




    1. Pedal six-four (also sometimes called neighbor), where the bass stays the same;

    2. Passing six-four, where the bass functions as a passing note between two harmonies;

    3. Cadential six-four, a specific type of pedal six-four that occurs over scale-degree 5;

    4. Arpeggiated six-four, where the bass arpeggiates the given harmony.


    I've always been a little skeptical of the arpeggiated six-four—in the interests of full disclosure, I just plain don't think it even exists—and I'm unsure why we view some six-four chords as arpeggiated and others as just expanding a more stable inversion of the chord.



    Consider, for instance, the following two examples:



    enter image description here



    The above Beethoven example is almost invariably cited in textbooks as a perfect example of the arpeggiated six-four. Here, I've labeled these chords with asterisks below the staff.



    But to me, the Beethoven example is hardly any different from the following Mozart example, and no one in their right mind would label every inversion of this Alberti bass:



    enter image description here



    Can anyone explain to me the logic here? It can't be an issue of tempo or the rate of pitch change, because that doesn't matter in other aspects of tonal theory.






    theory chords chord-inversions







    share|improve this question
























      up vote
      11
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      11
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2





      Textbooks traditionally teach that there are four types of six-four (i.e., second inversion) chords:




      1. Pedal six-four (also sometimes called neighbor), where the bass stays the same;

      2. Passing six-four, where the bass functions as a passing note between two harmonies;

      3. Cadential six-four, a specific type of pedal six-four that occurs over scale-degree 5;

      4. Arpeggiated six-four, where the bass arpeggiates the given harmony.


      I've always been a little skeptical of the arpeggiated six-four—in the interests of full disclosure, I just plain don't think it even exists—and I'm unsure why we view some six-four chords as arpeggiated and others as just expanding a more stable inversion of the chord.



      Consider, for instance, the following two examples:



      enter image description here



      The above Beethoven example is almost invariably cited in textbooks as a perfect example of the arpeggiated six-four. Here, I've labeled these chords with asterisks below the staff.



      But to me, the Beethoven example is hardly any different from the following Mozart example, and no one in their right mind would label every inversion of this Alberti bass:



      enter image description here



      Can anyone explain to me the logic here? It can't be an issue of tempo or the rate of pitch change, because that doesn't matter in other aspects of tonal theory.






      theory chords chord-inversions







      share|improve this question













      Textbooks traditionally teach that there are four types of six-four (i.e., second inversion) chords:




      1. Pedal six-four (also sometimes called neighbor), where the bass stays the same;

      2. Passing six-four, where the bass functions as a passing note between two harmonies;

      3. Cadential six-four, a specific type of pedal six-four that occurs over scale-degree 5;

      4. Arpeggiated six-four, where the bass arpeggiates the given harmony.


      I've always been a little skeptical of the arpeggiated six-four—in the interests of full disclosure, I just plain don't think it even exists—and I'm unsure why we view some six-four chords as arpeggiated and others as just expanding a more stable inversion of the chord.



      Consider, for instance, the following two examples:



      enter image description here



      The above Beethoven example is almost invariably cited in textbooks as a perfect example of the arpeggiated six-four. Here, I've labeled these chords with asterisks below the staff.



      But to me, the Beethoven example is hardly any different from the following Mozart example, and no one in their right mind would label every inversion of this Alberti bass:



      enter image description here



      Can anyone explain to me the logic here? It can't be an issue of tempo or the rate of pitch change, because that doesn't matter in other aspects of tonal theory.






      theory chords chord-inversions




      theory chords chord-inversions






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      asked 7 hours ago









      Richard

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          Excellent question. I agree with you that there is no substantial difference in the treatment of the 4th in these two examples. If I were labeling the chords (which is not the same as doing an in-depth musical analysis), I would mark both examples as root-position I until the dominant harmony comes; the points where the bass touches the 5th and 3rd are (as you say) simply elaborations of a more stable root-position chord.



          The Beethoven example is beloved by textbook writers because it is a rare instance where the ear has time to pause on each inversion of the chord. But it is vastly outnumbered by examples where the bass voice touches on the 5th of the chord in an arpeggio or other florid figuration and only the lowest note of this figuration is heard as a harmonic bass.






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            Excellent question. I agree with you that there is no substantial difference in the treatment of the 4th in these two examples. If I were labeling the chords (which is not the same as doing an in-depth musical analysis), I would mark both examples as root-position I until the dominant harmony comes; the points where the bass touches the 5th and 3rd are (as you say) simply elaborations of a more stable root-position chord.



            The Beethoven example is beloved by textbook writers because it is a rare instance where the ear has time to pause on each inversion of the chord. But it is vastly outnumbered by examples where the bass voice touches on the 5th of the chord in an arpeggio or other florid figuration and only the lowest note of this figuration is heard as a harmonic bass.






            share|improve this answer

























              up vote
              5
              down vote













              Excellent question. I agree with you that there is no substantial difference in the treatment of the 4th in these two examples. If I were labeling the chords (which is not the same as doing an in-depth musical analysis), I would mark both examples as root-position I until the dominant harmony comes; the points where the bass touches the 5th and 3rd are (as you say) simply elaborations of a more stable root-position chord.



              The Beethoven example is beloved by textbook writers because it is a rare instance where the ear has time to pause on each inversion of the chord. But it is vastly outnumbered by examples where the bass voice touches on the 5th of the chord in an arpeggio or other florid figuration and only the lowest note of this figuration is heard as a harmonic bass.






              share|improve this answer























                up vote
                5
                down vote










                up vote
                5
                down vote









                Excellent question. I agree with you that there is no substantial difference in the treatment of the 4th in these two examples. If I were labeling the chords (which is not the same as doing an in-depth musical analysis), I would mark both examples as root-position I until the dominant harmony comes; the points where the bass touches the 5th and 3rd are (as you say) simply elaborations of a more stable root-position chord.



                The Beethoven example is beloved by textbook writers because it is a rare instance where the ear has time to pause on each inversion of the chord. But it is vastly outnumbered by examples where the bass voice touches on the 5th of the chord in an arpeggio or other florid figuration and only the lowest note of this figuration is heard as a harmonic bass.






                share|improve this answer












                Excellent question. I agree with you that there is no substantial difference in the treatment of the 4th in these two examples. If I were labeling the chords (which is not the same as doing an in-depth musical analysis), I would mark both examples as root-position I until the dominant harmony comes; the points where the bass touches the 5th and 3rd are (as you say) simply elaborations of a more stable root-position chord.



                The Beethoven example is beloved by textbook writers because it is a rare instance where the ear has time to pause on each inversion of the chord. But it is vastly outnumbered by examples where the bass voice touches on the 5th of the chord in an arpeggio or other florid figuration and only the lowest note of this figuration is heard as a harmonic bass.







                share|improve this answer












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                answered 6 hours ago









                Mirlan

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