Explain $y''-y=0$
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I've solved this equation and got $c_0cosh x + c_1sinh x$. However, I've noticed that if the arbitrary constant $c_0$ doesn't equal $c_1$, this wouldn't work; you would have to convert the $cosh x $and $sinh x$ into solutions of $e^x$ first. Why is this the case, because in other differential equations, the arbitrary constants can be any number?
sequences-and-series ordinary-differential-equations power-series differential
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add a comment |
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I've solved this equation and got $c_0cosh x + c_1sinh x$. However, I've noticed that if the arbitrary constant $c_0$ doesn't equal $c_1$, this wouldn't work; you would have to convert the $cosh x $and $sinh x$ into solutions of $e^x$ first. Why is this the case, because in other differential equations, the arbitrary constants can be any number?
sequences-and-series ordinary-differential-equations power-series differential
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1
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Use the substitution $$y(x)=e^{lambda x}$$
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– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Dec 8 '18 at 14:55
3
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Why wouldn't it work? Your differential equation is satisfied for any values of $c_0$ and $c_1$, isn't it?
$endgroup$
– TonyK
Dec 8 '18 at 15:00
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I've solved this equation and got $c_0cosh x + c_1sinh x$. However, I've noticed that if the arbitrary constant $c_0$ doesn't equal $c_1$, this wouldn't work; you would have to convert the $cosh x $and $sinh x$ into solutions of $e^x$ first. Why is this the case, because in other differential equations, the arbitrary constants can be any number?
sequences-and-series ordinary-differential-equations power-series differential
$endgroup$
I've solved this equation and got $c_0cosh x + c_1sinh x$. However, I've noticed that if the arbitrary constant $c_0$ doesn't equal $c_1$, this wouldn't work; you would have to convert the $cosh x $and $sinh x$ into solutions of $e^x$ first. Why is this the case, because in other differential equations, the arbitrary constants can be any number?
sequences-and-series ordinary-differential-equations power-series differential
sequences-and-series ordinary-differential-equations power-series differential
edited Dec 8 '18 at 15:01
mrtaurho
4,24421234
4,24421234
asked Dec 8 '18 at 14:54
Fourth Fourth
514
514
1
$begingroup$
Use the substitution $$y(x)=e^{lambda x}$$
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Dec 8 '18 at 14:55
3
$begingroup$
Why wouldn't it work? Your differential equation is satisfied for any values of $c_0$ and $c_1$, isn't it?
$endgroup$
– TonyK
Dec 8 '18 at 15:00
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Use the substitution $$y(x)=e^{lambda x}$$
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Dec 8 '18 at 14:55
3
$begingroup$
Why wouldn't it work? Your differential equation is satisfied for any values of $c_0$ and $c_1$, isn't it?
$endgroup$
– TonyK
Dec 8 '18 at 15:00
1
1
$begingroup$
Use the substitution $$y(x)=e^{lambda x}$$
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Dec 8 '18 at 14:55
$begingroup$
Use the substitution $$y(x)=e^{lambda x}$$
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Dec 8 '18 at 14:55
3
3
$begingroup$
Why wouldn't it work? Your differential equation is satisfied for any values of $c_0$ and $c_1$, isn't it?
$endgroup$
– TonyK
Dec 8 '18 at 15:00
$begingroup$
Why wouldn't it work? Your differential equation is satisfied for any values of $c_0$ and $c_1$, isn't it?
$endgroup$
– TonyK
Dec 8 '18 at 15:00
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
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Why do you claim that it doesn't work? $$(c_0cosh +c_1sinh )''=c_0(sinh)'+c_1(cosh)'=c_0cosh+c_1sinh$$
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add a comment |
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$cosh x$ and $sinh x$ are two independent linear combinations of $e^x$ and $e^{-x}$. Hence any linear combination of the two former can be expressed as a linear combination of the two latter, and conversely.
The hyperbolic functions are exponentials in disguise.
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add a comment |
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It works for any $(c_0,c_1)$. Since $$(cosh(x))''=cosh(x)$$ and $$(sinh(x))''=sinh(x),$$
if $$y=c_0 cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x),$$
then
$$y''=c_0cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x)=y,$$
and so
$$y''-y=0.$$
It is also true that $cosh(x)$ and $sinh(x)$ are L.I. functions, since the wronskian determinant is not zero, because
$$W(cosh(x),sinh(x))=left|begin{matrix}cosh(x)&sinh(x)\(cosh(x))'&(sinh(x))'\end{matrix}right|=$$
$$=left|begin{matrix}cosh(x)&sinh(x)\sinh(x)&cosh(x)\end{matrix}right|=cosh^2(x)-sinh^2(x)=1,quad forall x.$$
This implies that all the solutions are of the form
$$y=c_0 cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x).$$
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$cosh'$ is $sinh$, not $cosh$.
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– Saucy O'Path
Dec 8 '18 at 15:05
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Thanks, I forgot another prime on each expression.
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– Alejandro Nasif Salum
Dec 8 '18 at 15:10
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Why do you claim that it doesn't work? $$(c_0cosh +c_1sinh )''=c_0(sinh)'+c_1(cosh)'=c_0cosh+c_1sinh$$
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why do you claim that it doesn't work? $$(c_0cosh +c_1sinh )''=c_0(sinh)'+c_1(cosh)'=c_0cosh+c_1sinh$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why do you claim that it doesn't work? $$(c_0cosh +c_1sinh )''=c_0(sinh)'+c_1(cosh)'=c_0cosh+c_1sinh$$
$endgroup$
Why do you claim that it doesn't work? $$(c_0cosh +c_1sinh )''=c_0(sinh)'+c_1(cosh)'=c_0cosh+c_1sinh$$
answered Dec 8 '18 at 15:01
Saucy O'PathSaucy O'Path
5,9191626
5,9191626
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$cosh x$ and $sinh x$ are two independent linear combinations of $e^x$ and $e^{-x}$. Hence any linear combination of the two former can be expressed as a linear combination of the two latter, and conversely.
The hyperbolic functions are exponentials in disguise.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$cosh x$ and $sinh x$ are two independent linear combinations of $e^x$ and $e^{-x}$. Hence any linear combination of the two former can be expressed as a linear combination of the two latter, and conversely.
The hyperbolic functions are exponentials in disguise.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$cosh x$ and $sinh x$ are two independent linear combinations of $e^x$ and $e^{-x}$. Hence any linear combination of the two former can be expressed as a linear combination of the two latter, and conversely.
The hyperbolic functions are exponentials in disguise.
$endgroup$
$cosh x$ and $sinh x$ are two independent linear combinations of $e^x$ and $e^{-x}$. Hence any linear combination of the two former can be expressed as a linear combination of the two latter, and conversely.
The hyperbolic functions are exponentials in disguise.
answered Dec 8 '18 at 15:03
Yves DaoustYves Daoust
126k672225
126k672225
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It works for any $(c_0,c_1)$. Since $$(cosh(x))''=cosh(x)$$ and $$(sinh(x))''=sinh(x),$$
if $$y=c_0 cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x),$$
then
$$y''=c_0cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x)=y,$$
and so
$$y''-y=0.$$
It is also true that $cosh(x)$ and $sinh(x)$ are L.I. functions, since the wronskian determinant is not zero, because
$$W(cosh(x),sinh(x))=left|begin{matrix}cosh(x)&sinh(x)\(cosh(x))'&(sinh(x))'\end{matrix}right|=$$
$$=left|begin{matrix}cosh(x)&sinh(x)\sinh(x)&cosh(x)\end{matrix}right|=cosh^2(x)-sinh^2(x)=1,quad forall x.$$
This implies that all the solutions are of the form
$$y=c_0 cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x).$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
$cosh'$ is $sinh$, not $cosh$.
$endgroup$
– Saucy O'Path
Dec 8 '18 at 15:05
$begingroup$
Thanks, I forgot another prime on each expression.
$endgroup$
– Alejandro Nasif Salum
Dec 8 '18 at 15:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It works for any $(c_0,c_1)$. Since $$(cosh(x))''=cosh(x)$$ and $$(sinh(x))''=sinh(x),$$
if $$y=c_0 cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x),$$
then
$$y''=c_0cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x)=y,$$
and so
$$y''-y=0.$$
It is also true that $cosh(x)$ and $sinh(x)$ are L.I. functions, since the wronskian determinant is not zero, because
$$W(cosh(x),sinh(x))=left|begin{matrix}cosh(x)&sinh(x)\(cosh(x))'&(sinh(x))'\end{matrix}right|=$$
$$=left|begin{matrix}cosh(x)&sinh(x)\sinh(x)&cosh(x)\end{matrix}right|=cosh^2(x)-sinh^2(x)=1,quad forall x.$$
This implies that all the solutions are of the form
$$y=c_0 cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x).$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
$cosh'$ is $sinh$, not $cosh$.
$endgroup$
– Saucy O'Path
Dec 8 '18 at 15:05
$begingroup$
Thanks, I forgot another prime on each expression.
$endgroup$
– Alejandro Nasif Salum
Dec 8 '18 at 15:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It works for any $(c_0,c_1)$. Since $$(cosh(x))''=cosh(x)$$ and $$(sinh(x))''=sinh(x),$$
if $$y=c_0 cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x),$$
then
$$y''=c_0cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x)=y,$$
and so
$$y''-y=0.$$
It is also true that $cosh(x)$ and $sinh(x)$ are L.I. functions, since the wronskian determinant is not zero, because
$$W(cosh(x),sinh(x))=left|begin{matrix}cosh(x)&sinh(x)\(cosh(x))'&(sinh(x))'\end{matrix}right|=$$
$$=left|begin{matrix}cosh(x)&sinh(x)\sinh(x)&cosh(x)\end{matrix}right|=cosh^2(x)-sinh^2(x)=1,quad forall x.$$
This implies that all the solutions are of the form
$$y=c_0 cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x).$$
$endgroup$
It works for any $(c_0,c_1)$. Since $$(cosh(x))''=cosh(x)$$ and $$(sinh(x))''=sinh(x),$$
if $$y=c_0 cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x),$$
then
$$y''=c_0cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x)=y,$$
and so
$$y''-y=0.$$
It is also true that $cosh(x)$ and $sinh(x)$ are L.I. functions, since the wronskian determinant is not zero, because
$$W(cosh(x),sinh(x))=left|begin{matrix}cosh(x)&sinh(x)\(cosh(x))'&(sinh(x))'\end{matrix}right|=$$
$$=left|begin{matrix}cosh(x)&sinh(x)\sinh(x)&cosh(x)\end{matrix}right|=cosh^2(x)-sinh^2(x)=1,quad forall x.$$
This implies that all the solutions are of the form
$$y=c_0 cosh(x)+c_1sinh(x).$$
edited Dec 8 '18 at 15:09
answered Dec 8 '18 at 15:03
Alejandro Nasif SalumAlejandro Nasif Salum
4,765118
4,765118
$begingroup$
$cosh'$ is $sinh$, not $cosh$.
$endgroup$
– Saucy O'Path
Dec 8 '18 at 15:05
$begingroup$
Thanks, I forgot another prime on each expression.
$endgroup$
– Alejandro Nasif Salum
Dec 8 '18 at 15:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$cosh'$ is $sinh$, not $cosh$.
$endgroup$
– Saucy O'Path
Dec 8 '18 at 15:05
$begingroup$
Thanks, I forgot another prime on each expression.
$endgroup$
– Alejandro Nasif Salum
Dec 8 '18 at 15:10
$begingroup$
$cosh'$ is $sinh$, not $cosh$.
$endgroup$
– Saucy O'Path
Dec 8 '18 at 15:05
$begingroup$
$cosh'$ is $sinh$, not $cosh$.
$endgroup$
– Saucy O'Path
Dec 8 '18 at 15:05
$begingroup$
Thanks, I forgot another prime on each expression.
$endgroup$
– Alejandro Nasif Salum
Dec 8 '18 at 15:10
$begingroup$
Thanks, I forgot another prime on each expression.
$endgroup$
– Alejandro Nasif Salum
Dec 8 '18 at 15:10
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Use the substitution $$y(x)=e^{lambda x}$$
$endgroup$
– Dr. Sonnhard Graubner
Dec 8 '18 at 14:55
3
$begingroup$
Why wouldn't it work? Your differential equation is satisfied for any values of $c_0$ and $c_1$, isn't it?
$endgroup$
– TonyK
Dec 8 '18 at 15:00