Nontriviality of the Hopf Fibration












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A simple question how to understand why even though locally $S^3$ is homeomorphic to $S^2times S^1$, how do you see that globally this is not true?










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  • $begingroup$
    Do you mean $S^2 times S^1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rolf Hoyer
    Dec 8 '18 at 13:48










  • $begingroup$
    Yes sorry! In my head I was thinking about the wrong theorem showing that the quotient of two lie groups forming a bundle with the quotient being the fibres! I'll amend the question!
    $endgroup$
    – Bunneh
    Dec 9 '18 at 12:31
















0












$begingroup$


A simple question how to understand why even though locally $S^3$ is homeomorphic to $S^2times S^1$, how do you see that globally this is not true?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Do you mean $S^2 times S^1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rolf Hoyer
    Dec 8 '18 at 13:48










  • $begingroup$
    Yes sorry! In my head I was thinking about the wrong theorem showing that the quotient of two lie groups forming a bundle with the quotient being the fibres! I'll amend the question!
    $endgroup$
    – Bunneh
    Dec 9 '18 at 12:31














0












0








0





$begingroup$


A simple question how to understand why even though locally $S^3$ is homeomorphic to $S^2times S^1$, how do you see that globally this is not true?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




A simple question how to understand why even though locally $S^3$ is homeomorphic to $S^2times S^1$, how do you see that globally this is not true?







differential-geometry fiber-bundles fibration hopf-fibration






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 9 '18 at 12:32







Bunneh

















asked Dec 8 '18 at 13:42









BunnehBunneh

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557












  • $begingroup$
    Do you mean $S^2 times S^1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rolf Hoyer
    Dec 8 '18 at 13:48










  • $begingroup$
    Yes sorry! In my head I was thinking about the wrong theorem showing that the quotient of two lie groups forming a bundle with the quotient being the fibres! I'll amend the question!
    $endgroup$
    – Bunneh
    Dec 9 '18 at 12:31


















  • $begingroup$
    Do you mean $S^2 times S^1$?
    $endgroup$
    – Rolf Hoyer
    Dec 8 '18 at 13:48










  • $begingroup$
    Yes sorry! In my head I was thinking about the wrong theorem showing that the quotient of two lie groups forming a bundle with the quotient being the fibres! I'll amend the question!
    $endgroup$
    – Bunneh
    Dec 9 '18 at 12:31
















$begingroup$
Do you mean $S^2 times S^1$?
$endgroup$
– Rolf Hoyer
Dec 8 '18 at 13:48




$begingroup$
Do you mean $S^2 times S^1$?
$endgroup$
– Rolf Hoyer
Dec 8 '18 at 13:48












$begingroup$
Yes sorry! In my head I was thinking about the wrong theorem showing that the quotient of two lie groups forming a bundle with the quotient being the fibres! I'll amend the question!
$endgroup$
– Bunneh
Dec 9 '18 at 12:31




$begingroup$
Yes sorry! In my head I was thinking about the wrong theorem showing that the quotient of two lie groups forming a bundle with the quotient being the fibres! I'll amend the question!
$endgroup$
– Bunneh
Dec 9 '18 at 12:31










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

A standard way to show that $S^3$ is not homeomorphic to $S^2 times S_1$ is to look at its fundamental group: $S^3$ is simply connected (that is, $pi_1$ is trivial), but $pi_1(S^2 times S^1) simeq pi_1(S^1) = Bbb{Z}$.



More intuitively, try this: in $S^3$, any imbedded 2-sphere will separate the space into two connected components. But in $S^2 times S^1$, a 2-sphere $S^2 times {x}$ does not separate the space.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    $begingroup$

    A standard way to show that $S^3$ is not homeomorphic to $S^2 times S_1$ is to look at its fundamental group: $S^3$ is simply connected (that is, $pi_1$ is trivial), but $pi_1(S^2 times S^1) simeq pi_1(S^1) = Bbb{Z}$.



    More intuitively, try this: in $S^3$, any imbedded 2-sphere will separate the space into two connected components. But in $S^2 times S^1$, a 2-sphere $S^2 times {x}$ does not separate the space.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      A standard way to show that $S^3$ is not homeomorphic to $S^2 times S_1$ is to look at its fundamental group: $S^3$ is simply connected (that is, $pi_1$ is trivial), but $pi_1(S^2 times S^1) simeq pi_1(S^1) = Bbb{Z}$.



      More intuitively, try this: in $S^3$, any imbedded 2-sphere will separate the space into two connected components. But in $S^2 times S^1$, a 2-sphere $S^2 times {x}$ does not separate the space.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        A standard way to show that $S^3$ is not homeomorphic to $S^2 times S_1$ is to look at its fundamental group: $S^3$ is simply connected (that is, $pi_1$ is trivial), but $pi_1(S^2 times S^1) simeq pi_1(S^1) = Bbb{Z}$.



        More intuitively, try this: in $S^3$, any imbedded 2-sphere will separate the space into two connected components. But in $S^2 times S^1$, a 2-sphere $S^2 times {x}$ does not separate the space.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        A standard way to show that $S^3$ is not homeomorphic to $S^2 times S_1$ is to look at its fundamental group: $S^3$ is simply connected (that is, $pi_1$ is trivial), but $pi_1(S^2 times S^1) simeq pi_1(S^1) = Bbb{Z}$.



        More intuitively, try this: in $S^3$, any imbedded 2-sphere will separate the space into two connected components. But in $S^2 times S^1$, a 2-sphere $S^2 times {x}$ does not separate the space.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 8 '18 at 14:16









        Hew WolffHew Wolff

        2,245716




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