If $f_n longrightarrow f$ almost everywhere and $g_n longrightarrow g$ almost everywhere
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1 The Riemann function $f:[-1,1]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as
$$
f(x)=
begin{cases}
0, &textrm{if }x notin mathbb{Q}cap[-1,1]textrm{ or }x =0\
frac{1}{q} , &textrm{if }xin mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]textrm{ and }x =frac{p}{q}neq 0
end{cases}
$$
Where $x =frac{p}{q}$ is an irreducible fraction and q is non zero ($qneq o)$
Does the Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann Integrability hold for this function?
[2] If $f_n longrightarrow f$ almost everywhere and $g_n longrightarrow g$ almost everywhere where $f,g$ are both finite valued, then show that
$f_n+g_n longrightarrow f+g$ almost everywhere And
$f_ng_n longrightarrow fg$ almost everywhere
MY ATTEMPT
1 YES!
$f$ is discontinuous at any rational point $x =frac{p}{q}$ $(q neq0)$ and continuous at any irrational point in [-1,1] and f is bounded.
Since $A= mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]$ -{0}the set of discontinuous points of f. Hence $m(A)=0$
Therefore by Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann integrability $f$ is Riemann integrable on [-1,1] Hence $f$ is Lebesgue Integrable and
$int^{1}_{-1} f(x) dx = int_{[-1,1]} fdm=0$ because $f=0$ almost everywhere
IS this correct?
[2] I'm not sure how to approach this question. I've tried using THIS
but I am unable to see the connection if there is any at all. Never did a question like this so i'm unsure as to how to begin.
measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure almost-everywhere measurable-functions
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up vote
0
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1 The Riemann function $f:[-1,1]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as
$$
f(x)=
begin{cases}
0, &textrm{if }x notin mathbb{Q}cap[-1,1]textrm{ or }x =0\
frac{1}{q} , &textrm{if }xin mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]textrm{ and }x =frac{p}{q}neq 0
end{cases}
$$
Where $x =frac{p}{q}$ is an irreducible fraction and q is non zero ($qneq o)$
Does the Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann Integrability hold for this function?
[2] If $f_n longrightarrow f$ almost everywhere and $g_n longrightarrow g$ almost everywhere where $f,g$ are both finite valued, then show that
$f_n+g_n longrightarrow f+g$ almost everywhere And
$f_ng_n longrightarrow fg$ almost everywhere
MY ATTEMPT
1 YES!
$f$ is discontinuous at any rational point $x =frac{p}{q}$ $(q neq0)$ and continuous at any irrational point in [-1,1] and f is bounded.
Since $A= mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]$ -{0}the set of discontinuous points of f. Hence $m(A)=0$
Therefore by Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann integrability $f$ is Riemann integrable on [-1,1] Hence $f$ is Lebesgue Integrable and
$int^{1}_{-1} f(x) dx = int_{[-1,1]} fdm=0$ because $f=0$ almost everywhere
IS this correct?
[2] I'm not sure how to approach this question. I've tried using THIS
but I am unable to see the connection if there is any at all. Never did a question like this so i'm unsure as to how to begin.
measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure almost-everywhere measurable-functions
Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
– Will M.
Nov 21 at 18:34
You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
– MPW
Nov 21 at 18:41
Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
– Jason Moore
Nov 22 at 13:53
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
1 The Riemann function $f:[-1,1]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as
$$
f(x)=
begin{cases}
0, &textrm{if }x notin mathbb{Q}cap[-1,1]textrm{ or }x =0\
frac{1}{q} , &textrm{if }xin mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]textrm{ and }x =frac{p}{q}neq 0
end{cases}
$$
Where $x =frac{p}{q}$ is an irreducible fraction and q is non zero ($qneq o)$
Does the Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann Integrability hold for this function?
[2] If $f_n longrightarrow f$ almost everywhere and $g_n longrightarrow g$ almost everywhere where $f,g$ are both finite valued, then show that
$f_n+g_n longrightarrow f+g$ almost everywhere And
$f_ng_n longrightarrow fg$ almost everywhere
MY ATTEMPT
1 YES!
$f$ is discontinuous at any rational point $x =frac{p}{q}$ $(q neq0)$ and continuous at any irrational point in [-1,1] and f is bounded.
Since $A= mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]$ -{0}the set of discontinuous points of f. Hence $m(A)=0$
Therefore by Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann integrability $f$ is Riemann integrable on [-1,1] Hence $f$ is Lebesgue Integrable and
$int^{1}_{-1} f(x) dx = int_{[-1,1]} fdm=0$ because $f=0$ almost everywhere
IS this correct?
[2] I'm not sure how to approach this question. I've tried using THIS
but I am unable to see the connection if there is any at all. Never did a question like this so i'm unsure as to how to begin.
measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure almost-everywhere measurable-functions
1 The Riemann function $f:[-1,1]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as
$$
f(x)=
begin{cases}
0, &textrm{if }x notin mathbb{Q}cap[-1,1]textrm{ or }x =0\
frac{1}{q} , &textrm{if }xin mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]textrm{ and }x =frac{p}{q}neq 0
end{cases}
$$
Where $x =frac{p}{q}$ is an irreducible fraction and q is non zero ($qneq o)$
Does the Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann Integrability hold for this function?
[2] If $f_n longrightarrow f$ almost everywhere and $g_n longrightarrow g$ almost everywhere where $f,g$ are both finite valued, then show that
$f_n+g_n longrightarrow f+g$ almost everywhere And
$f_ng_n longrightarrow fg$ almost everywhere
MY ATTEMPT
1 YES!
$f$ is discontinuous at any rational point $x =frac{p}{q}$ $(q neq0)$ and continuous at any irrational point in [-1,1] and f is bounded.
Since $A= mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]$ -{0}the set of discontinuous points of f. Hence $m(A)=0$
Therefore by Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann integrability $f$ is Riemann integrable on [-1,1] Hence $f$ is Lebesgue Integrable and
$int^{1}_{-1} f(x) dx = int_{[-1,1]} fdm=0$ because $f=0$ almost everywhere
IS this correct?
[2] I'm not sure how to approach this question. I've tried using THIS
but I am unable to see the connection if there is any at all. Never did a question like this so i'm unsure as to how to begin.
measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure almost-everywhere measurable-functions
measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure almost-everywhere measurable-functions
edited Nov 21 at 18:37
MPW
29.8k11956
29.8k11956
asked Nov 21 at 18:31
Jason Moore
607
607
Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
– Will M.
Nov 21 at 18:34
You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
– MPW
Nov 21 at 18:41
Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
– Jason Moore
Nov 22 at 13:53
add a comment |
Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
– Will M.
Nov 21 at 18:34
You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
– MPW
Nov 21 at 18:41
Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
– Jason Moore
Nov 22 at 13:53
Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
– Will M.
Nov 21 at 18:34
Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
– Will M.
Nov 21 at 18:34
You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
– MPW
Nov 21 at 18:41
You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
– MPW
Nov 21 at 18:41
Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
– Jason Moore
Nov 22 at 13:53
Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
– Jason Moore
Nov 22 at 13:53
add a comment |
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Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
– Will M.
Nov 21 at 18:34
You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
– MPW
Nov 21 at 18:41
Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
– Jason Moore
Nov 22 at 13:53