If $f_n longrightarrow f$ almost everywhere and $g_n longrightarrow g$ almost everywhere











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1 The Riemann function $f:[-1,1]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as



$$
f(x)=
begin{cases}
0, &textrm{if }x notin mathbb{Q}cap[-1,1]textrm{ or }x =0\
frac{1}{q} , &textrm{if }xin mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]textrm{ and }x =frac{p}{q}neq 0
end{cases}
$$



Where $x =frac{p}{q}$ is an irreducible fraction and q is non zero ($qneq o)$



Does the Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann Integrability hold for this function?



[2] If $f_n longrightarrow f$ almost everywhere and $g_n longrightarrow g$ almost everywhere where $f,g$ are both finite valued, then show that



$f_n+g_n longrightarrow f+g$ almost everywhere And



$f_ng_n longrightarrow fg$ almost everywhere



MY ATTEMPT



1 YES!



$f$ is discontinuous at any rational point $x =frac{p}{q}$ $(q neq0)$ and continuous at any irrational point in [-1,1] and f is bounded.



Since $A= mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]$ -{0}the set of discontinuous points of f. Hence $m(A)=0$



Therefore by Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann integrability $f$ is Riemann integrable on [-1,1] Hence $f$ is Lebesgue Integrable and



$int^{1}_{-1} f(x) dx = int_{[-1,1]} fdm=0$ because $f=0$ almost everywhere



IS this correct?



[2] I'm not sure how to approach this question. I've tried using THIS



but I am unable to see the connection if there is any at all. Never did a question like this so i'm unsure as to how to begin.










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  • Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 at 18:34










  • You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
    – MPW
    Nov 21 at 18:41












  • Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
    – Jason Moore
    Nov 22 at 13:53















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












1 The Riemann function $f:[-1,1]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as



$$
f(x)=
begin{cases}
0, &textrm{if }x notin mathbb{Q}cap[-1,1]textrm{ or }x =0\
frac{1}{q} , &textrm{if }xin mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]textrm{ and }x =frac{p}{q}neq 0
end{cases}
$$



Where $x =frac{p}{q}$ is an irreducible fraction and q is non zero ($qneq o)$



Does the Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann Integrability hold for this function?



[2] If $f_n longrightarrow f$ almost everywhere and $g_n longrightarrow g$ almost everywhere where $f,g$ are both finite valued, then show that



$f_n+g_n longrightarrow f+g$ almost everywhere And



$f_ng_n longrightarrow fg$ almost everywhere



MY ATTEMPT



1 YES!



$f$ is discontinuous at any rational point $x =frac{p}{q}$ $(q neq0)$ and continuous at any irrational point in [-1,1] and f is bounded.



Since $A= mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]$ -{0}the set of discontinuous points of f. Hence $m(A)=0$



Therefore by Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann integrability $f$ is Riemann integrable on [-1,1] Hence $f$ is Lebesgue Integrable and



$int^{1}_{-1} f(x) dx = int_{[-1,1]} fdm=0$ because $f=0$ almost everywhere



IS this correct?



[2] I'm not sure how to approach this question. I've tried using THIS



but I am unable to see the connection if there is any at all. Never did a question like this so i'm unsure as to how to begin.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 at 18:34










  • You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
    – MPW
    Nov 21 at 18:41












  • Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
    – Jason Moore
    Nov 22 at 13:53













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











1 The Riemann function $f:[-1,1]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as



$$
f(x)=
begin{cases}
0, &textrm{if }x notin mathbb{Q}cap[-1,1]textrm{ or }x =0\
frac{1}{q} , &textrm{if }xin mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]textrm{ and }x =frac{p}{q}neq 0
end{cases}
$$



Where $x =frac{p}{q}$ is an irreducible fraction and q is non zero ($qneq o)$



Does the Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann Integrability hold for this function?



[2] If $f_n longrightarrow f$ almost everywhere and $g_n longrightarrow g$ almost everywhere where $f,g$ are both finite valued, then show that



$f_n+g_n longrightarrow f+g$ almost everywhere And



$f_ng_n longrightarrow fg$ almost everywhere



MY ATTEMPT



1 YES!



$f$ is discontinuous at any rational point $x =frac{p}{q}$ $(q neq0)$ and continuous at any irrational point in [-1,1] and f is bounded.



Since $A= mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]$ -{0}the set of discontinuous points of f. Hence $m(A)=0$



Therefore by Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann integrability $f$ is Riemann integrable on [-1,1] Hence $f$ is Lebesgue Integrable and



$int^{1}_{-1} f(x) dx = int_{[-1,1]} fdm=0$ because $f=0$ almost everywhere



IS this correct?



[2] I'm not sure how to approach this question. I've tried using THIS



but I am unable to see the connection if there is any at all. Never did a question like this so i'm unsure as to how to begin.










share|cite|improve this question















1 The Riemann function $f:[-1,1]longrightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as



$$
f(x)=
begin{cases}
0, &textrm{if }x notin mathbb{Q}cap[-1,1]textrm{ or }x =0\
frac{1}{q} , &textrm{if }xin mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]textrm{ and }x =frac{p}{q}neq 0
end{cases}
$$



Where $x =frac{p}{q}$ is an irreducible fraction and q is non zero ($qneq o)$



Does the Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann Integrability hold for this function?



[2] If $f_n longrightarrow f$ almost everywhere and $g_n longrightarrow g$ almost everywhere where $f,g$ are both finite valued, then show that



$f_n+g_n longrightarrow f+g$ almost everywhere And



$f_ng_n longrightarrow fg$ almost everywhere



MY ATTEMPT



1 YES!



$f$ is discontinuous at any rational point $x =frac{p}{q}$ $(q neq0)$ and continuous at any irrational point in [-1,1] and f is bounded.



Since $A= mathbb{Q} cap[-1,1]$ -{0}the set of discontinuous points of f. Hence $m(A)=0$



Therefore by Lebesgue Criterion for Riemann integrability $f$ is Riemann integrable on [-1,1] Hence $f$ is Lebesgue Integrable and



$int^{1}_{-1} f(x) dx = int_{[-1,1]} fdm=0$ because $f=0$ almost everywhere



IS this correct?



[2] I'm not sure how to approach this question. I've tried using THIS



but I am unable to see the connection if there is any at all. Never did a question like this so i'm unsure as to how to begin.







measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure almost-everywhere measurable-functions






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edited Nov 21 at 18:37









MPW

29.8k11956




29.8k11956










asked Nov 21 at 18:31









Jason Moore

607




607












  • Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 at 18:34










  • You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
    – MPW
    Nov 21 at 18:41












  • Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
    – Jason Moore
    Nov 22 at 13:53


















  • Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 at 18:34










  • You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
    – MPW
    Nov 21 at 18:41












  • Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
    – Jason Moore
    Nov 22 at 13:53
















Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
– Will M.
Nov 21 at 18:34




Don't link documents. For (2) just take a null set $N$ such that outside of it both $f_n$ and $g_n$ converge. You are reduced to sequences of real (or complex) numbers.
– Will M.
Nov 21 at 18:34












You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
– MPW
Nov 21 at 18:41






You should require $q>0$ or the function is not well-defined (because $frac pq=frac{-p}{-q}$). I already added the requirement that $pneq 0$ for you.
– MPW
Nov 21 at 18:41














Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
– Jason Moore
Nov 22 at 13:53




Ok i've fixed part (1) but i'm still pretty confused about part (2). Anything else you can tell me mate?
– Jason Moore
Nov 22 at 13:53















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