Are localizing subcategories thick?












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$begingroup$


We work in $T$ triangulated category admitting small coproducts, we say $S$ a full subcategory is exact or triangulated iff it is closed under suspensions and triangles. Moreover such $S$ is called localising whenever it is closed under infinite coproducts and thick if it is closed under summands, i.e. if $X oplus Y in S$ then both $X$ and $Y$ are in $S$.



These are classical definitions in the theory of triangulated category which I think are familiar to anyone who studied it.



I was told that every localizing subcategory is thick but I cannot see this from the definitions.
My first thought was using the triangle $X rightarrow X oplus Y rightarrow Y rightarrow Sigma X$ to get the claim but I only know $X oplus Y in S$ so I cannot conclude using the closure under triangles.



Does this follows from the definitions alone or do I need some result? My intuition tells me that if the claim is true it should be an easy fact which does not require a complicate proof.



Maybe I need an additional assumption on $T$?



Edit: I recalled now that if $T$ is compactly generated then Brown representability theorem implies the existence of a localization functor $L colon T rightarrow T$ with kernel $S$ and such $L$ is left adjoint to the inclusion $S^perp rightarrow T$. Thus $L(X oplus Y)cong LX oplus LY$ and this is zero iff both $LX$ and $LY$ are zero. This gives the claim I wanted but the proof is more complex that what I thought at first and I need the additional assumption that $T$ must be compactly generated. Can you provide an easier proof or one which does not require the compactly generated hypothesis? Or give a counterexample if such exists.










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    We work in $T$ triangulated category admitting small coproducts, we say $S$ a full subcategory is exact or triangulated iff it is closed under suspensions and triangles. Moreover such $S$ is called localising whenever it is closed under infinite coproducts and thick if it is closed under summands, i.e. if $X oplus Y in S$ then both $X$ and $Y$ are in $S$.



    These are classical definitions in the theory of triangulated category which I think are familiar to anyone who studied it.



    I was told that every localizing subcategory is thick but I cannot see this from the definitions.
    My first thought was using the triangle $X rightarrow X oplus Y rightarrow Y rightarrow Sigma X$ to get the claim but I only know $X oplus Y in S$ so I cannot conclude using the closure under triangles.



    Does this follows from the definitions alone or do I need some result? My intuition tells me that if the claim is true it should be an easy fact which does not require a complicate proof.



    Maybe I need an additional assumption on $T$?



    Edit: I recalled now that if $T$ is compactly generated then Brown representability theorem implies the existence of a localization functor $L colon T rightarrow T$ with kernel $S$ and such $L$ is left adjoint to the inclusion $S^perp rightarrow T$. Thus $L(X oplus Y)cong LX oplus LY$ and this is zero iff both $LX$ and $LY$ are zero. This gives the claim I wanted but the proof is more complex that what I thought at first and I need the additional assumption that $T$ must be compactly generated. Can you provide an easier proof or one which does not require the compactly generated hypothesis? Or give a counterexample if such exists.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      We work in $T$ triangulated category admitting small coproducts, we say $S$ a full subcategory is exact or triangulated iff it is closed under suspensions and triangles. Moreover such $S$ is called localising whenever it is closed under infinite coproducts and thick if it is closed under summands, i.e. if $X oplus Y in S$ then both $X$ and $Y$ are in $S$.



      These are classical definitions in the theory of triangulated category which I think are familiar to anyone who studied it.



      I was told that every localizing subcategory is thick but I cannot see this from the definitions.
      My first thought was using the triangle $X rightarrow X oplus Y rightarrow Y rightarrow Sigma X$ to get the claim but I only know $X oplus Y in S$ so I cannot conclude using the closure under triangles.



      Does this follows from the definitions alone or do I need some result? My intuition tells me that if the claim is true it should be an easy fact which does not require a complicate proof.



      Maybe I need an additional assumption on $T$?



      Edit: I recalled now that if $T$ is compactly generated then Brown representability theorem implies the existence of a localization functor $L colon T rightarrow T$ with kernel $S$ and such $L$ is left adjoint to the inclusion $S^perp rightarrow T$. Thus $L(X oplus Y)cong LX oplus LY$ and this is zero iff both $LX$ and $LY$ are zero. This gives the claim I wanted but the proof is more complex that what I thought at first and I need the additional assumption that $T$ must be compactly generated. Can you provide an easier proof or one which does not require the compactly generated hypothesis? Or give a counterexample if such exists.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      We work in $T$ triangulated category admitting small coproducts, we say $S$ a full subcategory is exact or triangulated iff it is closed under suspensions and triangles. Moreover such $S$ is called localising whenever it is closed under infinite coproducts and thick if it is closed under summands, i.e. if $X oplus Y in S$ then both $X$ and $Y$ are in $S$.



      These are classical definitions in the theory of triangulated category which I think are familiar to anyone who studied it.



      I was told that every localizing subcategory is thick but I cannot see this from the definitions.
      My first thought was using the triangle $X rightarrow X oplus Y rightarrow Y rightarrow Sigma X$ to get the claim but I only know $X oplus Y in S$ so I cannot conclude using the closure under triangles.



      Does this follows from the definitions alone or do I need some result? My intuition tells me that if the claim is true it should be an easy fact which does not require a complicate proof.



      Maybe I need an additional assumption on $T$?



      Edit: I recalled now that if $T$ is compactly generated then Brown representability theorem implies the existence of a localization functor $L colon T rightarrow T$ with kernel $S$ and such $L$ is left adjoint to the inclusion $S^perp rightarrow T$. Thus $L(X oplus Y)cong LX oplus LY$ and this is zero iff both $LX$ and $LY$ are zero. This gives the claim I wanted but the proof is more complex that what I thought at first and I need the additional assumption that $T$ must be compactly generated. Can you provide an easier proof or one which does not require the compactly generated hypothesis? Or give a counterexample if such exists.







      triangulated-categories






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      edited Dec 14 '18 at 17:36







      N.B.

















      asked Dec 14 '18 at 17:25









      N.B.N.B.

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      696313






















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          $begingroup$

          $$(Xoplus Y)oplus(Xoplus Y)oplus(Xoplus Y)oplusdotscong Xoplus (Yoplus X)oplus(Yoplus X)oplusdots,$$
          so there is a triangle
          $$Xto(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}to(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}toSigma X,$$
          where $(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}$ denotes the coproduct of countably many copies of $Xoplus Y$.



          This is often called the "Eilenberg swindle".






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The second map in the triangle is the one twisting the sum $X oplus Y$ in $Y oplus X$ and then injecting infinitely many such copies in $X oplus (Y oplus X) oplus (Y oplus X) dots$, right?
            $endgroup$
            – N.B.
            Dec 17 '18 at 9:24












          • $begingroup$
            @N.B. Yes, right.
            $endgroup$
            – Jeremy Rickard
            Dec 17 '18 at 13:13











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          $begingroup$

          $$(Xoplus Y)oplus(Xoplus Y)oplus(Xoplus Y)oplusdotscong Xoplus (Yoplus X)oplus(Yoplus X)oplusdots,$$
          so there is a triangle
          $$Xto(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}to(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}toSigma X,$$
          where $(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}$ denotes the coproduct of countably many copies of $Xoplus Y$.



          This is often called the "Eilenberg swindle".






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The second map in the triangle is the one twisting the sum $X oplus Y$ in $Y oplus X$ and then injecting infinitely many such copies in $X oplus (Y oplus X) oplus (Y oplus X) dots$, right?
            $endgroup$
            – N.B.
            Dec 17 '18 at 9:24












          • $begingroup$
            @N.B. Yes, right.
            $endgroup$
            – Jeremy Rickard
            Dec 17 '18 at 13:13
















          2












          $begingroup$

          $$(Xoplus Y)oplus(Xoplus Y)oplus(Xoplus Y)oplusdotscong Xoplus (Yoplus X)oplus(Yoplus X)oplusdots,$$
          so there is a triangle
          $$Xto(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}to(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}toSigma X,$$
          where $(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}$ denotes the coproduct of countably many copies of $Xoplus Y$.



          This is often called the "Eilenberg swindle".






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            The second map in the triangle is the one twisting the sum $X oplus Y$ in $Y oplus X$ and then injecting infinitely many such copies in $X oplus (Y oplus X) oplus (Y oplus X) dots$, right?
            $endgroup$
            – N.B.
            Dec 17 '18 at 9:24












          • $begingroup$
            @N.B. Yes, right.
            $endgroup$
            – Jeremy Rickard
            Dec 17 '18 at 13:13














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          $$(Xoplus Y)oplus(Xoplus Y)oplus(Xoplus Y)oplusdotscong Xoplus (Yoplus X)oplus(Yoplus X)oplusdots,$$
          so there is a triangle
          $$Xto(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}to(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}toSigma X,$$
          where $(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}$ denotes the coproduct of countably many copies of $Xoplus Y$.



          This is often called the "Eilenberg swindle".






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          $$(Xoplus Y)oplus(Xoplus Y)oplus(Xoplus Y)oplusdotscong Xoplus (Yoplus X)oplus(Yoplus X)oplusdots,$$
          so there is a triangle
          $$Xto(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}to(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}toSigma X,$$
          where $(Xoplus Y)^{(mathbb{N})}$ denotes the coproduct of countably many copies of $Xoplus Y$.



          This is often called the "Eilenberg swindle".







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 16 '18 at 12:19









          Jeremy RickardJeremy Rickard

          16.4k11743




          16.4k11743












          • $begingroup$
            The second map in the triangle is the one twisting the sum $X oplus Y$ in $Y oplus X$ and then injecting infinitely many such copies in $X oplus (Y oplus X) oplus (Y oplus X) dots$, right?
            $endgroup$
            – N.B.
            Dec 17 '18 at 9:24












          • $begingroup$
            @N.B. Yes, right.
            $endgroup$
            – Jeremy Rickard
            Dec 17 '18 at 13:13


















          • $begingroup$
            The second map in the triangle is the one twisting the sum $X oplus Y$ in $Y oplus X$ and then injecting infinitely many such copies in $X oplus (Y oplus X) oplus (Y oplus X) dots$, right?
            $endgroup$
            – N.B.
            Dec 17 '18 at 9:24












          • $begingroup$
            @N.B. Yes, right.
            $endgroup$
            – Jeremy Rickard
            Dec 17 '18 at 13:13
















          $begingroup$
          The second map in the triangle is the one twisting the sum $X oplus Y$ in $Y oplus X$ and then injecting infinitely many such copies in $X oplus (Y oplus X) oplus (Y oplus X) dots$, right?
          $endgroup$
          – N.B.
          Dec 17 '18 at 9:24






          $begingroup$
          The second map in the triangle is the one twisting the sum $X oplus Y$ in $Y oplus X$ and then injecting infinitely many such copies in $X oplus (Y oplus X) oplus (Y oplus X) dots$, right?
          $endgroup$
          – N.B.
          Dec 17 '18 at 9:24














          $begingroup$
          @N.B. Yes, right.
          $endgroup$
          – Jeremy Rickard
          Dec 17 '18 at 13:13




          $begingroup$
          @N.B. Yes, right.
          $endgroup$
          – Jeremy Rickard
          Dec 17 '18 at 13:13


















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