How do I determine the domain of marginal density functions?












0












$begingroup$


I have the following density function.
$$f(x,y)=frac{1}{32}*(10-3x^2-y)quad,-1<x<1; 0<y<2$$
When calculating the marginal density for $x$, $f_x$, I get
$$int_{0}^2frac{1}{32}*(10-3x^2-y) dy \
= [10y-3x^2y-frac{y^2}{2}]^2_0 \
Rightarrow f_x = frac{9}{16}-frac{3x^2}{16}$$



I am wondering however over which domain this function is defined.
Where do I start thinking/Why?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I have the following density function.
    $$f(x,y)=frac{1}{32}*(10-3x^2-y)quad,-1<x<1; 0<y<2$$
    When calculating the marginal density for $x$, $f_x$, I get
    $$int_{0}^2frac{1}{32}*(10-3x^2-y) dy \
    = [10y-3x^2y-frac{y^2}{2}]^2_0 \
    Rightarrow f_x = frac{9}{16}-frac{3x^2}{16}$$



    I am wondering however over which domain this function is defined.
    Where do I start thinking/Why?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I have the following density function.
      $$f(x,y)=frac{1}{32}*(10-3x^2-y)quad,-1<x<1; 0<y<2$$
      When calculating the marginal density for $x$, $f_x$, I get
      $$int_{0}^2frac{1}{32}*(10-3x^2-y) dy \
      = [10y-3x^2y-frac{y^2}{2}]^2_0 \
      Rightarrow f_x = frac{9}{16}-frac{3x^2}{16}$$



      I am wondering however over which domain this function is defined.
      Where do I start thinking/Why?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I have the following density function.
      $$f(x,y)=frac{1}{32}*(10-3x^2-y)quad,-1<x<1; 0<y<2$$
      When calculating the marginal density for $x$, $f_x$, I get
      $$int_{0}^2frac{1}{32}*(10-3x^2-y) dy \
      = [10y-3x^2y-frac{y^2}{2}]^2_0 \
      Rightarrow f_x = frac{9}{16}-frac{3x^2}{16}$$



      I am wondering however over which domain this function is defined.
      Where do I start thinking/Why?







      probability density-function marginal-probability






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      asked Dec 21 '18 at 7:14









      thebillythebilly

      566




      566






















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          $begingroup$

          It is common to think of PDF's as measurable non-negative functions $mathbb R^ntomathbb R$ and in that context the domain of a PDF is just $mathbb R^n$.



          Quite often there is a situation that a random variable $X$ only takes values on e.g. some interval $(a,b)$ and in that situation on forehand we can choose for a corresponding PDF that takes value $0$ outside $(a,b)$.



          In your case I would say that the domain of $f_X$ is $mathbb R$ and that it is prescribed by $xmapstofrac9{16}-frac{3x^2}{16}$ for $xin(-1,1)$ and by $xmapsto0$ otherwise.



          Observe that for a fixed $xnotin(-1,1)$ indeed you get: $$f_X(x)=int_{-infty}^{infty} f(x,y)dy=0$$ if $f(x,y)$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto0$ for $xnotin(-1,1)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            1 Answer
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            1 Answer
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            active

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            active

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            1












            $begingroup$

            It is common to think of PDF's as measurable non-negative functions $mathbb R^ntomathbb R$ and in that context the domain of a PDF is just $mathbb R^n$.



            Quite often there is a situation that a random variable $X$ only takes values on e.g. some interval $(a,b)$ and in that situation on forehand we can choose for a corresponding PDF that takes value $0$ outside $(a,b)$.



            In your case I would say that the domain of $f_X$ is $mathbb R$ and that it is prescribed by $xmapstofrac9{16}-frac{3x^2}{16}$ for $xin(-1,1)$ and by $xmapsto0$ otherwise.



            Observe that for a fixed $xnotin(-1,1)$ indeed you get: $$f_X(x)=int_{-infty}^{infty} f(x,y)dy=0$$ if $f(x,y)$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto0$ for $xnotin(-1,1)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              It is common to think of PDF's as measurable non-negative functions $mathbb R^ntomathbb R$ and in that context the domain of a PDF is just $mathbb R^n$.



              Quite often there is a situation that a random variable $X$ only takes values on e.g. some interval $(a,b)$ and in that situation on forehand we can choose for a corresponding PDF that takes value $0$ outside $(a,b)$.



              In your case I would say that the domain of $f_X$ is $mathbb R$ and that it is prescribed by $xmapstofrac9{16}-frac{3x^2}{16}$ for $xin(-1,1)$ and by $xmapsto0$ otherwise.



              Observe that for a fixed $xnotin(-1,1)$ indeed you get: $$f_X(x)=int_{-infty}^{infty} f(x,y)dy=0$$ if $f(x,y)$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto0$ for $xnotin(-1,1)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                It is common to think of PDF's as measurable non-negative functions $mathbb R^ntomathbb R$ and in that context the domain of a PDF is just $mathbb R^n$.



                Quite often there is a situation that a random variable $X$ only takes values on e.g. some interval $(a,b)$ and in that situation on forehand we can choose for a corresponding PDF that takes value $0$ outside $(a,b)$.



                In your case I would say that the domain of $f_X$ is $mathbb R$ and that it is prescribed by $xmapstofrac9{16}-frac{3x^2}{16}$ for $xin(-1,1)$ and by $xmapsto0$ otherwise.



                Observe that for a fixed $xnotin(-1,1)$ indeed you get: $$f_X(x)=int_{-infty}^{infty} f(x,y)dy=0$$ if $f(x,y)$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto0$ for $xnotin(-1,1)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                It is common to think of PDF's as measurable non-negative functions $mathbb R^ntomathbb R$ and in that context the domain of a PDF is just $mathbb R^n$.



                Quite often there is a situation that a random variable $X$ only takes values on e.g. some interval $(a,b)$ and in that situation on forehand we can choose for a corresponding PDF that takes value $0$ outside $(a,b)$.



                In your case I would say that the domain of $f_X$ is $mathbb R$ and that it is prescribed by $xmapstofrac9{16}-frac{3x^2}{16}$ for $xin(-1,1)$ and by $xmapsto0$ otherwise.



                Observe that for a fixed $xnotin(-1,1)$ indeed you get: $$f_X(x)=int_{-infty}^{infty} f(x,y)dy=0$$ if $f(x,y)$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto0$ for $xnotin(-1,1)$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 21 '18 at 10:00









                drhabdrhab

                102k545136




                102k545136






























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