Show $Delta(theta)mathbb{Z} = Delta(R/mathbb{Z}) implies R = mathbb{Z}[theta]$.












0












$begingroup$


Let $Delta$ denote the discriminant and $Delta(R/mathbb{Z})$ denote the discriminant ideal of $R$ over $mathbb{Z}$. I'm having trouble proving the following:



Suppose $[mathbb{Q}(theta) : mathbb{Q}] = n$ and $theta in R$ which is the integral closure of $mathbb{Z}$ in $mathbb{Q}(theta)$. Then $Delta(theta)mathbb{Z} = Delta(R/mathbb{Z}) implies R = mathbb{Z}[theta]$.



Attempt: Let $X={x_0, dots, x_{n-1}}$ be a $mathbb{Z}$-basis for $R$. I know from a lemma that $Delta(theta) = det A^2 Delta(X)$, where $A$ is the change of basis matrix between $X$ and ${1, theta, dots, theta^{n-1}}$. So $Delta(X) mid Delta(theta)$, but also, $Delta(theta) mid Delta(X)$ since $Delta(R/mathbb{Z}) = Delta(theta)mathbb{Z}$. This implies that $det A = pm1$.



Now, consider a typical element $y in R$. Then
begin{align*}
y &= sum_{k=0}^{n-1} a_k x_k
\
& = sum_{k=0}^{n-1} sum_{j=0}^{n-1}a_kr_{jk}theta^j
end{align*}

where $(r_{jk}) = A^{-1}$. Since $A^{-1} = frac{1}{det A} C^T = pm C^T$, where $C$ is the cofactor matrix of $A$. Since $C$ has only entries from $mathbb{Z}$ we have that the $r_{jk} in mathbb{Z}$. Thus, $y in mathbb{Z}[theta]$.



Question: Is this right? Also, someone told me that in general $|det A| = [R : mathbb{Z}[theta]]$. I can't see why this would be true. Is there a way to understand this without going into Smith normal form(see here)
?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What is wrong with using the Smith normal form? Or any other argument leading to the so called stacked bases theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 21 '18 at 8:11










  • $begingroup$
    I've never seen it before, but I guess it wouldn't hurt to learn something new. I was just wondering if there is a more elementary way to see this.
    $endgroup$
    – matt stokes
    Dec 21 '18 at 14:55


















0












$begingroup$


Let $Delta$ denote the discriminant and $Delta(R/mathbb{Z})$ denote the discriminant ideal of $R$ over $mathbb{Z}$. I'm having trouble proving the following:



Suppose $[mathbb{Q}(theta) : mathbb{Q}] = n$ and $theta in R$ which is the integral closure of $mathbb{Z}$ in $mathbb{Q}(theta)$. Then $Delta(theta)mathbb{Z} = Delta(R/mathbb{Z}) implies R = mathbb{Z}[theta]$.



Attempt: Let $X={x_0, dots, x_{n-1}}$ be a $mathbb{Z}$-basis for $R$. I know from a lemma that $Delta(theta) = det A^2 Delta(X)$, where $A$ is the change of basis matrix between $X$ and ${1, theta, dots, theta^{n-1}}$. So $Delta(X) mid Delta(theta)$, but also, $Delta(theta) mid Delta(X)$ since $Delta(R/mathbb{Z}) = Delta(theta)mathbb{Z}$. This implies that $det A = pm1$.



Now, consider a typical element $y in R$. Then
begin{align*}
y &= sum_{k=0}^{n-1} a_k x_k
\
& = sum_{k=0}^{n-1} sum_{j=0}^{n-1}a_kr_{jk}theta^j
end{align*}

where $(r_{jk}) = A^{-1}$. Since $A^{-1} = frac{1}{det A} C^T = pm C^T$, where $C$ is the cofactor matrix of $A$. Since $C$ has only entries from $mathbb{Z}$ we have that the $r_{jk} in mathbb{Z}$. Thus, $y in mathbb{Z}[theta]$.



Question: Is this right? Also, someone told me that in general $|det A| = [R : mathbb{Z}[theta]]$. I can't see why this would be true. Is there a way to understand this without going into Smith normal form(see here)
?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What is wrong with using the Smith normal form? Or any other argument leading to the so called stacked bases theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 21 '18 at 8:11










  • $begingroup$
    I've never seen it before, but I guess it wouldn't hurt to learn something new. I was just wondering if there is a more elementary way to see this.
    $endgroup$
    – matt stokes
    Dec 21 '18 at 14:55
















0












0








0


0



$begingroup$


Let $Delta$ denote the discriminant and $Delta(R/mathbb{Z})$ denote the discriminant ideal of $R$ over $mathbb{Z}$. I'm having trouble proving the following:



Suppose $[mathbb{Q}(theta) : mathbb{Q}] = n$ and $theta in R$ which is the integral closure of $mathbb{Z}$ in $mathbb{Q}(theta)$. Then $Delta(theta)mathbb{Z} = Delta(R/mathbb{Z}) implies R = mathbb{Z}[theta]$.



Attempt: Let $X={x_0, dots, x_{n-1}}$ be a $mathbb{Z}$-basis for $R$. I know from a lemma that $Delta(theta) = det A^2 Delta(X)$, where $A$ is the change of basis matrix between $X$ and ${1, theta, dots, theta^{n-1}}$. So $Delta(X) mid Delta(theta)$, but also, $Delta(theta) mid Delta(X)$ since $Delta(R/mathbb{Z}) = Delta(theta)mathbb{Z}$. This implies that $det A = pm1$.



Now, consider a typical element $y in R$. Then
begin{align*}
y &= sum_{k=0}^{n-1} a_k x_k
\
& = sum_{k=0}^{n-1} sum_{j=0}^{n-1}a_kr_{jk}theta^j
end{align*}

where $(r_{jk}) = A^{-1}$. Since $A^{-1} = frac{1}{det A} C^T = pm C^T$, where $C$ is the cofactor matrix of $A$. Since $C$ has only entries from $mathbb{Z}$ we have that the $r_{jk} in mathbb{Z}$. Thus, $y in mathbb{Z}[theta]$.



Question: Is this right? Also, someone told me that in general $|det A| = [R : mathbb{Z}[theta]]$. I can't see why this would be true. Is there a way to understand this without going into Smith normal form(see here)
?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $Delta$ denote the discriminant and $Delta(R/mathbb{Z})$ denote the discriminant ideal of $R$ over $mathbb{Z}$. I'm having trouble proving the following:



Suppose $[mathbb{Q}(theta) : mathbb{Q}] = n$ and $theta in R$ which is the integral closure of $mathbb{Z}$ in $mathbb{Q}(theta)$. Then $Delta(theta)mathbb{Z} = Delta(R/mathbb{Z}) implies R = mathbb{Z}[theta]$.



Attempt: Let $X={x_0, dots, x_{n-1}}$ be a $mathbb{Z}$-basis for $R$. I know from a lemma that $Delta(theta) = det A^2 Delta(X)$, where $A$ is the change of basis matrix between $X$ and ${1, theta, dots, theta^{n-1}}$. So $Delta(X) mid Delta(theta)$, but also, $Delta(theta) mid Delta(X)$ since $Delta(R/mathbb{Z}) = Delta(theta)mathbb{Z}$. This implies that $det A = pm1$.



Now, consider a typical element $y in R$. Then
begin{align*}
y &= sum_{k=0}^{n-1} a_k x_k
\
& = sum_{k=0}^{n-1} sum_{j=0}^{n-1}a_kr_{jk}theta^j
end{align*}

where $(r_{jk}) = A^{-1}$. Since $A^{-1} = frac{1}{det A} C^T = pm C^T$, where $C$ is the cofactor matrix of $A$. Since $C$ has only entries from $mathbb{Z}$ we have that the $r_{jk} in mathbb{Z}$. Thus, $y in mathbb{Z}[theta]$.



Question: Is this right? Also, someone told me that in general $|det A| = [R : mathbb{Z}[theta]]$. I can't see why this would be true. Is there a way to understand this without going into Smith normal form(see here)
?







proof-verification algebraic-number-theory discriminant






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 21 '18 at 6:56







matt stokes

















asked Dec 21 '18 at 6:43









matt stokesmatt stokes

582310




582310












  • $begingroup$
    What is wrong with using the Smith normal form? Or any other argument leading to the so called stacked bases theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 21 '18 at 8:11










  • $begingroup$
    I've never seen it before, but I guess it wouldn't hurt to learn something new. I was just wondering if there is a more elementary way to see this.
    $endgroup$
    – matt stokes
    Dec 21 '18 at 14:55




















  • $begingroup$
    What is wrong with using the Smith normal form? Or any other argument leading to the so called stacked bases theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – Jyrki Lahtonen
    Dec 21 '18 at 8:11










  • $begingroup$
    I've never seen it before, but I guess it wouldn't hurt to learn something new. I was just wondering if there is a more elementary way to see this.
    $endgroup$
    – matt stokes
    Dec 21 '18 at 14:55


















$begingroup$
What is wrong with using the Smith normal form? Or any other argument leading to the so called stacked bases theorem?
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Dec 21 '18 at 8:11




$begingroup$
What is wrong with using the Smith normal form? Or any other argument leading to the so called stacked bases theorem?
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Dec 21 '18 at 8:11












$begingroup$
I've never seen it before, but I guess it wouldn't hurt to learn something new. I was just wondering if there is a more elementary way to see this.
$endgroup$
– matt stokes
Dec 21 '18 at 14:55






$begingroup$
I've never seen it before, but I guess it wouldn't hurt to learn something new. I was just wondering if there is a more elementary way to see this.
$endgroup$
– matt stokes
Dec 21 '18 at 14:55












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