Is the differentiation operator an open mapping?












3












$begingroup$


Consider the vector spaces $C([0, 1])$ and $C^1([0, 1])$ with norm,
begin{align*}
displaystyle |f|_infty=sup_{xin [0, 1]}|f(x)|,
end{align*}

and let $T:C^1([0, 1])to C([0, 1])$ the operator given by,
begin{align*}
displaystyle Tf=f'.
end{align*}

Is $T$ defined this way an open mapping? If it's, how to prove it?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    Consider the vector spaces $C([0, 1])$ and $C^1([0, 1])$ with norm,
    begin{align*}
    displaystyle |f|_infty=sup_{xin [0, 1]}|f(x)|,
    end{align*}

    and let $T:C^1([0, 1])to C([0, 1])$ the operator given by,
    begin{align*}
    displaystyle Tf=f'.
    end{align*}

    Is $T$ defined this way an open mapping? If it's, how to prove it?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3


      1



      $begingroup$


      Consider the vector spaces $C([0, 1])$ and $C^1([0, 1])$ with norm,
      begin{align*}
      displaystyle |f|_infty=sup_{xin [0, 1]}|f(x)|,
      end{align*}

      and let $T:C^1([0, 1])to C([0, 1])$ the operator given by,
      begin{align*}
      displaystyle Tf=f'.
      end{align*}

      Is $T$ defined this way an open mapping? If it's, how to prove it?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Consider the vector spaces $C([0, 1])$ and $C^1([0, 1])$ with norm,
      begin{align*}
      displaystyle |f|_infty=sup_{xin [0, 1]}|f(x)|,
      end{align*}

      and let $T:C^1([0, 1])to C([0, 1])$ the operator given by,
      begin{align*}
      displaystyle Tf=f'.
      end{align*}

      Is $T$ defined this way an open mapping? If it's, how to prove it?







      functional-analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 12 '18 at 18:53









      davyjones

      393213




      393213










      asked Nov 18 '12 at 18:43









      PtFPtF

      3,95921734




      3,95921734






















          1 Answer
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          active

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          3












          $begingroup$

          Yes it is. Take arbitrary $gin C([0,1])$ and consuder $f(t)=int_{0}^tg(tau)dtau$. Then $T(f)=g$ and
          $$
          Vert fVert_infty
          =max_{tin[0,1]}left|int_{0}^tg(tau)dtauright|
          leqmax_{tin[0,1]}int_{0}^t|g(tau)|dtau
          leqint_{0}^1|g(tau)|dtau
          leqint_{0}^1max_{tauin[0,1]}|g(tau)|dtau=Vert gVert_infty
          $$
          Thus there exist $C=1$ such that for each $gin C([0,1])$ there exist $fin C^1([0,1])$ with $T(f)=g$ and $Vert fVertleq CVert gVert$. Hence $T$ is an open mapping.



          Though $T$ is surjective we can not apply open mapping theorem to conclude that $T$ is open mapping, because $(C^1([0,1]),VertcdotVert_infty)$ is not a Banach space.



          Here is a characterization of open maps I used in my answer.



          Theorem. Let $E$, $F$ be normed spaces and $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$, then the following conditions are equivalent.



          1) $T$ is an open mapping



          2) there exist $r>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_F(0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$



          3) there exist $C>0$ such that for all $yin F$ there exist $xin E$ with $T(x)=y$ and $Vert xVertleq CVert yVert$.



          Proof. $1)implies 2)$ Let condition $(1)$ holds, then $T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$ is open. Obviously $0in T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$, so from previous we have $r>0$ such that
          $mathrm{Ball}_F(0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$



          $2)implies 3)$ Now set $C=r^{-1}$. Take arbitrary $yin F$ and consider $hat{y}=rVert yVert^{-1}y$. Then $hat{y}inmathrm{Ball}_E(0,r)$. From $(1)$ we get some $hat{x}inmathrm{Ball}_E(0,1)$ such that $T(hat{x})=hat{y}$. Define $x=r^{-1}Vert yVert hat{x}$. It is easy to check that $T(x)=y$ and $Vert xVertleq CVert yVert$.



          $3)implies 1)$ Let $Usubset E$ be an open set. Take arbitrary $y_0in T(U)$, then there exist $x_0in U$ such that $T(x_0)=y_0$. Since $U$ is open there exist $R>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)subset U$. Define $r=(2C)^{-1}R$. Consider arbitrary $yin mathrm{Ball}(y_0,r)$, then there exist $hat{x}in E$ such that $T(hat{x})=y-y_0$ and $Vert hat{x}Vertleq CVert y-y_0Vertleq R/2$. Consider $x=hat{x}+x_0$. It is easy to check that $T(x)=y$ and $xinmathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)$. Thus for each $yinmathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)$ there exist $xinmathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)$ such that $T(x)=y$. This means that $mathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R))subset T(U)$. Thus for each $y_0in T(U)$ we found $r>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)subset T(U)$, hence $T(U)$ is open. Since $U$ is arbitrary open set in $E$, then $T$ is open.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I agree, your proof is all right =D Thanks a lot @Norbert
            $endgroup$
            – PtF
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:03










          • $begingroup$
            Why does this proof that the map is open?
            $endgroup$
            – Davide Giraudo
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:04










          • $begingroup$
            Because $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$ is an open mapping iff $$exists C>0quadforall yin Fquadexists xin E:quad T(x)=yquadwedgequadVert xVertleq CVert yVert$$
            $endgroup$
            – Norbert
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:07










          • $begingroup$
            Dion this is wrong consider zero operator
            $endgroup$
            – Norbert
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:08






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            One can indeed use the open mapping theorem: $C^1[0,1]$ with the norm $|f|= |f|_infty+|f'|_infty$ is Banach and the identity $(C^1[0,1],|cdot|_infty) to(C^1[0,1],|cdot|)$ is open.
            $endgroup$
            – Jochen
            Nov 19 '12 at 11:25













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          $begingroup$

          Yes it is. Take arbitrary $gin C([0,1])$ and consuder $f(t)=int_{0}^tg(tau)dtau$. Then $T(f)=g$ and
          $$
          Vert fVert_infty
          =max_{tin[0,1]}left|int_{0}^tg(tau)dtauright|
          leqmax_{tin[0,1]}int_{0}^t|g(tau)|dtau
          leqint_{0}^1|g(tau)|dtau
          leqint_{0}^1max_{tauin[0,1]}|g(tau)|dtau=Vert gVert_infty
          $$
          Thus there exist $C=1$ such that for each $gin C([0,1])$ there exist $fin C^1([0,1])$ with $T(f)=g$ and $Vert fVertleq CVert gVert$. Hence $T$ is an open mapping.



          Though $T$ is surjective we can not apply open mapping theorem to conclude that $T$ is open mapping, because $(C^1([0,1]),VertcdotVert_infty)$ is not a Banach space.



          Here is a characterization of open maps I used in my answer.



          Theorem. Let $E$, $F$ be normed spaces and $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$, then the following conditions are equivalent.



          1) $T$ is an open mapping



          2) there exist $r>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_F(0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$



          3) there exist $C>0$ such that for all $yin F$ there exist $xin E$ with $T(x)=y$ and $Vert xVertleq CVert yVert$.



          Proof. $1)implies 2)$ Let condition $(1)$ holds, then $T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$ is open. Obviously $0in T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$, so from previous we have $r>0$ such that
          $mathrm{Ball}_F(0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$



          $2)implies 3)$ Now set $C=r^{-1}$. Take arbitrary $yin F$ and consider $hat{y}=rVert yVert^{-1}y$. Then $hat{y}inmathrm{Ball}_E(0,r)$. From $(1)$ we get some $hat{x}inmathrm{Ball}_E(0,1)$ such that $T(hat{x})=hat{y}$. Define $x=r^{-1}Vert yVert hat{x}$. It is easy to check that $T(x)=y$ and $Vert xVertleq CVert yVert$.



          $3)implies 1)$ Let $Usubset E$ be an open set. Take arbitrary $y_0in T(U)$, then there exist $x_0in U$ such that $T(x_0)=y_0$. Since $U$ is open there exist $R>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)subset U$. Define $r=(2C)^{-1}R$. Consider arbitrary $yin mathrm{Ball}(y_0,r)$, then there exist $hat{x}in E$ such that $T(hat{x})=y-y_0$ and $Vert hat{x}Vertleq CVert y-y_0Vertleq R/2$. Consider $x=hat{x}+x_0$. It is easy to check that $T(x)=y$ and $xinmathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)$. Thus for each $yinmathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)$ there exist $xinmathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)$ such that $T(x)=y$. This means that $mathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R))subset T(U)$. Thus for each $y_0in T(U)$ we found $r>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)subset T(U)$, hence $T(U)$ is open. Since $U$ is arbitrary open set in $E$, then $T$ is open.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I agree, your proof is all right =D Thanks a lot @Norbert
            $endgroup$
            – PtF
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:03










          • $begingroup$
            Why does this proof that the map is open?
            $endgroup$
            – Davide Giraudo
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:04










          • $begingroup$
            Because $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$ is an open mapping iff $$exists C>0quadforall yin Fquadexists xin E:quad T(x)=yquadwedgequadVert xVertleq CVert yVert$$
            $endgroup$
            – Norbert
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:07










          • $begingroup$
            Dion this is wrong consider zero operator
            $endgroup$
            – Norbert
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:08






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            One can indeed use the open mapping theorem: $C^1[0,1]$ with the norm $|f|= |f|_infty+|f'|_infty$ is Banach and the identity $(C^1[0,1],|cdot|_infty) to(C^1[0,1],|cdot|)$ is open.
            $endgroup$
            – Jochen
            Nov 19 '12 at 11:25


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Yes it is. Take arbitrary $gin C([0,1])$ and consuder $f(t)=int_{0}^tg(tau)dtau$. Then $T(f)=g$ and
          $$
          Vert fVert_infty
          =max_{tin[0,1]}left|int_{0}^tg(tau)dtauright|
          leqmax_{tin[0,1]}int_{0}^t|g(tau)|dtau
          leqint_{0}^1|g(tau)|dtau
          leqint_{0}^1max_{tauin[0,1]}|g(tau)|dtau=Vert gVert_infty
          $$
          Thus there exist $C=1$ such that for each $gin C([0,1])$ there exist $fin C^1([0,1])$ with $T(f)=g$ and $Vert fVertleq CVert gVert$. Hence $T$ is an open mapping.



          Though $T$ is surjective we can not apply open mapping theorem to conclude that $T$ is open mapping, because $(C^1([0,1]),VertcdotVert_infty)$ is not a Banach space.



          Here is a characterization of open maps I used in my answer.



          Theorem. Let $E$, $F$ be normed spaces and $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$, then the following conditions are equivalent.



          1) $T$ is an open mapping



          2) there exist $r>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_F(0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$



          3) there exist $C>0$ such that for all $yin F$ there exist $xin E$ with $T(x)=y$ and $Vert xVertleq CVert yVert$.



          Proof. $1)implies 2)$ Let condition $(1)$ holds, then $T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$ is open. Obviously $0in T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$, so from previous we have $r>0$ such that
          $mathrm{Ball}_F(0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$



          $2)implies 3)$ Now set $C=r^{-1}$. Take arbitrary $yin F$ and consider $hat{y}=rVert yVert^{-1}y$. Then $hat{y}inmathrm{Ball}_E(0,r)$. From $(1)$ we get some $hat{x}inmathrm{Ball}_E(0,1)$ such that $T(hat{x})=hat{y}$. Define $x=r^{-1}Vert yVert hat{x}$. It is easy to check that $T(x)=y$ and $Vert xVertleq CVert yVert$.



          $3)implies 1)$ Let $Usubset E$ be an open set. Take arbitrary $y_0in T(U)$, then there exist $x_0in U$ such that $T(x_0)=y_0$. Since $U$ is open there exist $R>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)subset U$. Define $r=(2C)^{-1}R$. Consider arbitrary $yin mathrm{Ball}(y_0,r)$, then there exist $hat{x}in E$ such that $T(hat{x})=y-y_0$ and $Vert hat{x}Vertleq CVert y-y_0Vertleq R/2$. Consider $x=hat{x}+x_0$. It is easy to check that $T(x)=y$ and $xinmathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)$. Thus for each $yinmathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)$ there exist $xinmathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)$ such that $T(x)=y$. This means that $mathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R))subset T(U)$. Thus for each $y_0in T(U)$ we found $r>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)subset T(U)$, hence $T(U)$ is open. Since $U$ is arbitrary open set in $E$, then $T$ is open.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I agree, your proof is all right =D Thanks a lot @Norbert
            $endgroup$
            – PtF
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:03










          • $begingroup$
            Why does this proof that the map is open?
            $endgroup$
            – Davide Giraudo
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:04










          • $begingroup$
            Because $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$ is an open mapping iff $$exists C>0quadforall yin Fquadexists xin E:quad T(x)=yquadwedgequadVert xVertleq CVert yVert$$
            $endgroup$
            – Norbert
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:07










          • $begingroup$
            Dion this is wrong consider zero operator
            $endgroup$
            – Norbert
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:08






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            One can indeed use the open mapping theorem: $C^1[0,1]$ with the norm $|f|= |f|_infty+|f'|_infty$ is Banach and the identity $(C^1[0,1],|cdot|_infty) to(C^1[0,1],|cdot|)$ is open.
            $endgroup$
            – Jochen
            Nov 19 '12 at 11:25
















          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          Yes it is. Take arbitrary $gin C([0,1])$ and consuder $f(t)=int_{0}^tg(tau)dtau$. Then $T(f)=g$ and
          $$
          Vert fVert_infty
          =max_{tin[0,1]}left|int_{0}^tg(tau)dtauright|
          leqmax_{tin[0,1]}int_{0}^t|g(tau)|dtau
          leqint_{0}^1|g(tau)|dtau
          leqint_{0}^1max_{tauin[0,1]}|g(tau)|dtau=Vert gVert_infty
          $$
          Thus there exist $C=1$ such that for each $gin C([0,1])$ there exist $fin C^1([0,1])$ with $T(f)=g$ and $Vert fVertleq CVert gVert$. Hence $T$ is an open mapping.



          Though $T$ is surjective we can not apply open mapping theorem to conclude that $T$ is open mapping, because $(C^1([0,1]),VertcdotVert_infty)$ is not a Banach space.



          Here is a characterization of open maps I used in my answer.



          Theorem. Let $E$, $F$ be normed spaces and $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$, then the following conditions are equivalent.



          1) $T$ is an open mapping



          2) there exist $r>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_F(0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$



          3) there exist $C>0$ such that for all $yin F$ there exist $xin E$ with $T(x)=y$ and $Vert xVertleq CVert yVert$.



          Proof. $1)implies 2)$ Let condition $(1)$ holds, then $T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$ is open. Obviously $0in T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$, so from previous we have $r>0$ such that
          $mathrm{Ball}_F(0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$



          $2)implies 3)$ Now set $C=r^{-1}$. Take arbitrary $yin F$ and consider $hat{y}=rVert yVert^{-1}y$. Then $hat{y}inmathrm{Ball}_E(0,r)$. From $(1)$ we get some $hat{x}inmathrm{Ball}_E(0,1)$ such that $T(hat{x})=hat{y}$. Define $x=r^{-1}Vert yVert hat{x}$. It is easy to check that $T(x)=y$ and $Vert xVertleq CVert yVert$.



          $3)implies 1)$ Let $Usubset E$ be an open set. Take arbitrary $y_0in T(U)$, then there exist $x_0in U$ such that $T(x_0)=y_0$. Since $U$ is open there exist $R>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)subset U$. Define $r=(2C)^{-1}R$. Consider arbitrary $yin mathrm{Ball}(y_0,r)$, then there exist $hat{x}in E$ such that $T(hat{x})=y-y_0$ and $Vert hat{x}Vertleq CVert y-y_0Vertleq R/2$. Consider $x=hat{x}+x_0$. It is easy to check that $T(x)=y$ and $xinmathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)$. Thus for each $yinmathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)$ there exist $xinmathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)$ such that $T(x)=y$. This means that $mathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R))subset T(U)$. Thus for each $y_0in T(U)$ we found $r>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)subset T(U)$, hence $T(U)$ is open. Since $U$ is arbitrary open set in $E$, then $T$ is open.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Yes it is. Take arbitrary $gin C([0,1])$ and consuder $f(t)=int_{0}^tg(tau)dtau$. Then $T(f)=g$ and
          $$
          Vert fVert_infty
          =max_{tin[0,1]}left|int_{0}^tg(tau)dtauright|
          leqmax_{tin[0,1]}int_{0}^t|g(tau)|dtau
          leqint_{0}^1|g(tau)|dtau
          leqint_{0}^1max_{tauin[0,1]}|g(tau)|dtau=Vert gVert_infty
          $$
          Thus there exist $C=1$ such that for each $gin C([0,1])$ there exist $fin C^1([0,1])$ with $T(f)=g$ and $Vert fVertleq CVert gVert$. Hence $T$ is an open mapping.



          Though $T$ is surjective we can not apply open mapping theorem to conclude that $T$ is open mapping, because $(C^1([0,1]),VertcdotVert_infty)$ is not a Banach space.



          Here is a characterization of open maps I used in my answer.



          Theorem. Let $E$, $F$ be normed spaces and $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$, then the following conditions are equivalent.



          1) $T$ is an open mapping



          2) there exist $r>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_F(0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$



          3) there exist $C>0$ such that for all $yin F$ there exist $xin E$ with $T(x)=y$ and $Vert xVertleq CVert yVert$.



          Proof. $1)implies 2)$ Let condition $(1)$ holds, then $T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$ is open. Obviously $0in T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$, so from previous we have $r>0$ such that
          $mathrm{Ball}_F(0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(0,1))$



          $2)implies 3)$ Now set $C=r^{-1}$. Take arbitrary $yin F$ and consider $hat{y}=rVert yVert^{-1}y$. Then $hat{y}inmathrm{Ball}_E(0,r)$. From $(1)$ we get some $hat{x}inmathrm{Ball}_E(0,1)$ such that $T(hat{x})=hat{y}$. Define $x=r^{-1}Vert yVert hat{x}$. It is easy to check that $T(x)=y$ and $Vert xVertleq CVert yVert$.



          $3)implies 1)$ Let $Usubset E$ be an open set. Take arbitrary $y_0in T(U)$, then there exist $x_0in U$ such that $T(x_0)=y_0$. Since $U$ is open there exist $R>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)subset U$. Define $r=(2C)^{-1}R$. Consider arbitrary $yin mathrm{Ball}(y_0,r)$, then there exist $hat{x}in E$ such that $T(hat{x})=y-y_0$ and $Vert hat{x}Vertleq CVert y-y_0Vertleq R/2$. Consider $x=hat{x}+x_0$. It is easy to check that $T(x)=y$ and $xinmathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)$. Thus for each $yinmathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)$ there exist $xinmathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R)$ such that $T(x)=y$. This means that $mathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)subset T(mathrm{Ball}_E(x_0,R))subset T(U)$. Thus for each $y_0in T(U)$ we found $r>0$ such that $mathrm{Ball}_F(y_0,r)subset T(U)$, hence $T(U)$ is open. Since $U$ is arbitrary open set in $E$, then $T$ is open.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 19 '12 at 15:00

























          answered Nov 18 '12 at 18:53









          NorbertNorbert

          45.8k774161




          45.8k774161












          • $begingroup$
            I agree, your proof is all right =D Thanks a lot @Norbert
            $endgroup$
            – PtF
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:03










          • $begingroup$
            Why does this proof that the map is open?
            $endgroup$
            – Davide Giraudo
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:04










          • $begingroup$
            Because $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$ is an open mapping iff $$exists C>0quadforall yin Fquadexists xin E:quad T(x)=yquadwedgequadVert xVertleq CVert yVert$$
            $endgroup$
            – Norbert
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:07










          • $begingroup$
            Dion this is wrong consider zero operator
            $endgroup$
            – Norbert
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:08






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            One can indeed use the open mapping theorem: $C^1[0,1]$ with the norm $|f|= |f|_infty+|f'|_infty$ is Banach and the identity $(C^1[0,1],|cdot|_infty) to(C^1[0,1],|cdot|)$ is open.
            $endgroup$
            – Jochen
            Nov 19 '12 at 11:25




















          • $begingroup$
            I agree, your proof is all right =D Thanks a lot @Norbert
            $endgroup$
            – PtF
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:03










          • $begingroup$
            Why does this proof that the map is open?
            $endgroup$
            – Davide Giraudo
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:04










          • $begingroup$
            Because $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$ is an open mapping iff $$exists C>0quadforall yin Fquadexists xin E:quad T(x)=yquadwedgequadVert xVertleq CVert yVert$$
            $endgroup$
            – Norbert
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:07










          • $begingroup$
            Dion this is wrong consider zero operator
            $endgroup$
            – Norbert
            Nov 18 '12 at 19:08






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            One can indeed use the open mapping theorem: $C^1[0,1]$ with the norm $|f|= |f|_infty+|f'|_infty$ is Banach and the identity $(C^1[0,1],|cdot|_infty) to(C^1[0,1],|cdot|)$ is open.
            $endgroup$
            – Jochen
            Nov 19 '12 at 11:25


















          $begingroup$
          I agree, your proof is all right =D Thanks a lot @Norbert
          $endgroup$
          – PtF
          Nov 18 '12 at 19:03




          $begingroup$
          I agree, your proof is all right =D Thanks a lot @Norbert
          $endgroup$
          – PtF
          Nov 18 '12 at 19:03












          $begingroup$
          Why does this proof that the map is open?
          $endgroup$
          – Davide Giraudo
          Nov 18 '12 at 19:04




          $begingroup$
          Why does this proof that the map is open?
          $endgroup$
          – Davide Giraudo
          Nov 18 '12 at 19:04












          $begingroup$
          Because $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$ is an open mapping iff $$exists C>0quadforall yin Fquadexists xin E:quad T(x)=yquadwedgequadVert xVertleq CVert yVert$$
          $endgroup$
          – Norbert
          Nov 18 '12 at 19:07




          $begingroup$
          Because $Tinmathcal{B}(E,F)$ is an open mapping iff $$exists C>0quadforall yin Fquadexists xin E:quad T(x)=yquadwedgequadVert xVertleq CVert yVert$$
          $endgroup$
          – Norbert
          Nov 18 '12 at 19:07












          $begingroup$
          Dion this is wrong consider zero operator
          $endgroup$
          – Norbert
          Nov 18 '12 at 19:08




          $begingroup$
          Dion this is wrong consider zero operator
          $endgroup$
          – Norbert
          Nov 18 '12 at 19:08




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          One can indeed use the open mapping theorem: $C^1[0,1]$ with the norm $|f|= |f|_infty+|f'|_infty$ is Banach and the identity $(C^1[0,1],|cdot|_infty) to(C^1[0,1],|cdot|)$ is open.
          $endgroup$
          – Jochen
          Nov 19 '12 at 11:25






          $begingroup$
          One can indeed use the open mapping theorem: $C^1[0,1]$ with the norm $|f|= |f|_infty+|f'|_infty$ is Banach and the identity $(C^1[0,1],|cdot|_infty) to(C^1[0,1],|cdot|)$ is open.
          $endgroup$
          – Jochen
          Nov 19 '12 at 11:25




















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