Show that $f(x,y) = cos(x+y)+8$ is continuous at $(0,0).$












0












$begingroup$


I tried the following for this problem:



We first compute $f(0,0) = 9.$ Next we look at
$$|f(x,y)- f(0,0)| = |cos(x+y)-1|leq frac{(x+y)^2}{2}$$
when $(x,y)$ is in the neighbourhood of $(0,0).$ Since $frac{(x+y)^2}{2}to 0$ as $(x,y)to (0,0)$ we conclude that $f(x,y)$ is continuous at $(0,0).$



I am not sure whether this Taylor series type of argument can be applied for functions of several variables. Therefore, I would be grateful if someone could give feedback regarding this problem.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    It's a composition of continuous functions.
    $endgroup$
    – Callus
    Dec 12 '18 at 19:22










  • $begingroup$
    Even though it is very intuitive, perhaps one should add explanation for why $frac{(x+y)^2}{2}to 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Dec 12 '18 at 19:23


















0












$begingroup$


I tried the following for this problem:



We first compute $f(0,0) = 9.$ Next we look at
$$|f(x,y)- f(0,0)| = |cos(x+y)-1|leq frac{(x+y)^2}{2}$$
when $(x,y)$ is in the neighbourhood of $(0,0).$ Since $frac{(x+y)^2}{2}to 0$ as $(x,y)to (0,0)$ we conclude that $f(x,y)$ is continuous at $(0,0).$



I am not sure whether this Taylor series type of argument can be applied for functions of several variables. Therefore, I would be grateful if someone could give feedback regarding this problem.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    It's a composition of continuous functions.
    $endgroup$
    – Callus
    Dec 12 '18 at 19:22










  • $begingroup$
    Even though it is very intuitive, perhaps one should add explanation for why $frac{(x+y)^2}{2}to 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Dec 12 '18 at 19:23
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


I tried the following for this problem:



We first compute $f(0,0) = 9.$ Next we look at
$$|f(x,y)- f(0,0)| = |cos(x+y)-1|leq frac{(x+y)^2}{2}$$
when $(x,y)$ is in the neighbourhood of $(0,0).$ Since $frac{(x+y)^2}{2}to 0$ as $(x,y)to (0,0)$ we conclude that $f(x,y)$ is continuous at $(0,0).$



I am not sure whether this Taylor series type of argument can be applied for functions of several variables. Therefore, I would be grateful if someone could give feedback regarding this problem.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I tried the following for this problem:



We first compute $f(0,0) = 9.$ Next we look at
$$|f(x,y)- f(0,0)| = |cos(x+y)-1|leq frac{(x+y)^2}{2}$$
when $(x,y)$ is in the neighbourhood of $(0,0).$ Since $frac{(x+y)^2}{2}to 0$ as $(x,y)to (0,0)$ we conclude that $f(x,y)$ is continuous at $(0,0).$



I am not sure whether this Taylor series type of argument can be applied for functions of several variables. Therefore, I would be grateful if someone could give feedback regarding this problem.







real-analysis






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asked Dec 12 '18 at 19:19









Hello_WorldHello_World

4,12621731




4,12621731












  • $begingroup$
    It's a composition of continuous functions.
    $endgroup$
    – Callus
    Dec 12 '18 at 19:22










  • $begingroup$
    Even though it is very intuitive, perhaps one should add explanation for why $frac{(x+y)^2}{2}to 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Dec 12 '18 at 19:23




















  • $begingroup$
    It's a composition of continuous functions.
    $endgroup$
    – Callus
    Dec 12 '18 at 19:22










  • $begingroup$
    Even though it is very intuitive, perhaps one should add explanation for why $frac{(x+y)^2}{2}to 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Anurag A
    Dec 12 '18 at 19:23


















$begingroup$
It's a composition of continuous functions.
$endgroup$
– Callus
Dec 12 '18 at 19:22




$begingroup$
It's a composition of continuous functions.
$endgroup$
– Callus
Dec 12 '18 at 19:22












$begingroup$
Even though it is very intuitive, perhaps one should add explanation for why $frac{(x+y)^2}{2}to 0$?
$endgroup$
– Anurag A
Dec 12 '18 at 19:23






$begingroup$
Even though it is very intuitive, perhaps one should add explanation for why $frac{(x+y)^2}{2}to 0$?
$endgroup$
– Anurag A
Dec 12 '18 at 19:23












1 Answer
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$begingroup$

$$0le 1-cos(x+y)=2sin^2(frac{x+y}{2})$$



$$le frac{(x+y)^2}{2}$$



since



$$(forall Xin Bbb R) ;;; |sin(X)|le |X|$$






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    1 Answer
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    0












    $begingroup$

    $$0le 1-cos(x+y)=2sin^2(frac{x+y}{2})$$



    $$le frac{(x+y)^2}{2}$$



    since



    $$(forall Xin Bbb R) ;;; |sin(X)|le |X|$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      $$0le 1-cos(x+y)=2sin^2(frac{x+y}{2})$$



      $$le frac{(x+y)^2}{2}$$



      since



      $$(forall Xin Bbb R) ;;; |sin(X)|le |X|$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        $$0le 1-cos(x+y)=2sin^2(frac{x+y}{2})$$



        $$le frac{(x+y)^2}{2}$$



        since



        $$(forall Xin Bbb R) ;;; |sin(X)|le |X|$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        $$0le 1-cos(x+y)=2sin^2(frac{x+y}{2})$$



        $$le frac{(x+y)^2}{2}$$



        since



        $$(forall Xin Bbb R) ;;; |sin(X)|le |X|$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 12 '18 at 19:26









        hamam_Abdallahhamam_Abdallah

        38k21634




        38k21634






























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