What is the possessive case and the objective case of “ye?”
I know very well that archaically, "thou" is the nominative case for the modern day "you" while "thee" is the accusative case and that there is no distinction between the nominative and accusative cases in modern English, (both "you.") I know the same for "I" and "me," "he" and "him," "she" and "her," "we" and "us," and "they" and "them," nominative and accusative respectively. However, I have scoured the Earth looking for the accusative (objective) case of "ye." I have just been assuming that it was simply just "ye," but I am searching for a definitive answer. Similarly, what is the possessive case of "ye?" Essentially, what is the word for "to all of you" and "all of your" in archaic times (the second person plural accusative and possessive pronouns?)
possessives archaic objective-case
asked 4 hours ago
Leo DeCarlo
111
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Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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add a comment |
I know very well that archaically, "thou" is the nominative case for the modern day "you" while "thee" is the accusative case and that there is no distinction between the nominative and accusative cases in modern English, (both "you.") I know the same for "I" and "me," "he" and "him," "she" and "her," "we" and "us," and "they" and "them," nominative and accusative respectively. However, I have scoured the Earth looking for the accusative (objective) case of "ye." I have just been assuming that it was simply just "ye," but I am searching for a definitive answer. Similarly, what is the possessive case of "ye?" Essentially, what is the word for "to all of you" and "all of your" in archaic times (the second person plural accusative and possessive pronouns?)
possessives archaic objective-case
asked 4 hours ago
Leo DeCarlo
111
New contributor
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
4
It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
– sumelic
3 hours ago
You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
– BoldBen
3 hours ago
1
@BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
add a comment |
I know very well that archaically, "thou" is the nominative case for the modern day "you" while "thee" is the accusative case and that there is no distinction between the nominative and accusative cases in modern English, (both "you.") I know the same for "I" and "me," "he" and "him," "she" and "her," "we" and "us," and "they" and "them," nominative and accusative respectively. However, I have scoured the Earth looking for the accusative (objective) case of "ye." I have just been assuming that it was simply just "ye," but I am searching for a definitive answer. Similarly, what is the possessive case of "ye?" Essentially, what is the word for "to all of you" and "all of your" in archaic times (the second person plural accusative and possessive pronouns?)
possessives archaic objective-case
asked 4 hours ago
Leo DeCarlo
111
New contributor
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
I know very well that archaically, "thou" is the nominative case for the modern day "you" while "thee" is the accusative case and that there is no distinction between the nominative and accusative cases in modern English, (both "you.") I know the same for "I" and "me," "he" and "him," "she" and "her," "we" and "us," and "they" and "them," nominative and accusative respectively. However, I have scoured the Earth looking for the accusative (objective) case of "ye." I have just been assuming that it was simply just "ye," but I am searching for a definitive answer. Similarly, what is the possessive case of "ye?" Essentially, what is the word for "to all of you" and "all of your" in archaic times (the second person plural accusative and possessive pronouns?)
possessives archaic objective-case
possessives archaic objective-case
asked 4 hours ago
Leo DeCarlo
111
New contributor
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 4 hours ago
Leo DeCarlo
111
New contributor
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 4 hours ago
Leo DeCarlo
111
New contributor
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 4 hours ago
Leo DeCarlo
111
asked 4 hours ago
Leo DeCarlo
111
111
New contributor
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
4
It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
– sumelic
3 hours ago
You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
– BoldBen
3 hours ago
1
@BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
add a comment |
4
It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
– sumelic
3 hours ago
You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
– BoldBen
3 hours ago
1
@BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
4
4
It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
– sumelic
3 hours ago
Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
– sumelic
3 hours ago
You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
– BoldBen
3 hours ago
You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
– BoldBen
3 hours ago
1
1
@BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
@BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
In Early Modern English, ye was the nominative case and the objective and possessives were the familiar you (objective), your (possessive determiner) and yours (possessive pronoun).
answered 4 hours ago
Mark Beadles
20.3k35890
add a comment |
Genesis 18:5 And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye
your hearts; after that ye shall pass on: for therefore are ye come to your servant.
Here is an example from the Bible showing all versions in a single sentence.
answered 4 hours ago
chasly from UK
22.7k13068
2
Which is which case?
– Mitch
4 hours ago
2
All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
– John Lawler
39 mins ago
This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
– Jesse Steele
39 mins ago
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
In Early Modern English, ye was the nominative case and the objective and possessives were the familiar you (objective), your (possessive determiner) and yours (possessive pronoun).
answered 4 hours ago
Mark Beadles
20.3k35890
add a comment |
In Early Modern English, ye was the nominative case and the objective and possessives were the familiar you (objective), your (possessive determiner) and yours (possessive pronoun).
answered 4 hours ago
Mark Beadles
20.3k35890
add a comment |
In Early Modern English, ye was the nominative case and the objective and possessives were the familiar you (objective), your (possessive determiner) and yours (possessive pronoun).
answered 4 hours ago
Mark Beadles
20.3k35890
In Early Modern English, ye was the nominative case and the objective and possessives were the familiar you (objective), your (possessive determiner) and yours (possessive pronoun).
answered 4 hours ago
Mark Beadles
20.3k35890
answered 4 hours ago
Mark Beadles
20.3k35890
answered 4 hours ago
Mark Beadles
20.3k35890
answered 4 hours ago
Mark Beadles
20.3k35890
20.3k35890
add a comment |
add a comment |
Genesis 18:5 And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye
your hearts; after that ye shall pass on: for therefore are ye come to your servant.
Here is an example from the Bible showing all versions in a single sentence.
answered 4 hours ago
chasly from UK
22.7k13068
2
Which is which case?
– Mitch
4 hours ago
2
All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
– John Lawler
39 mins ago
This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
– Jesse Steele
39 mins ago
add a comment |
Genesis 18:5 And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye
your hearts; after that ye shall pass on: for therefore are ye come to your servant.
Here is an example from the Bible showing all versions in a single sentence.
answered 4 hours ago
chasly from UK
22.7k13068
2
Which is which case?
– Mitch
4 hours ago
2
All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
– John Lawler
39 mins ago
This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
– Jesse Steele
39 mins ago
add a comment |
Genesis 18:5 And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye
your hearts; after that ye shall pass on: for therefore are ye come to your servant.
Here is an example from the Bible showing all versions in a single sentence.
answered 4 hours ago
chasly from UK
22.7k13068
Genesis 18:5 And I will fetch a morsel of bread, and comfort ye
your hearts; after that ye shall pass on: for therefore are ye come to your servant.
Here is an example from the Bible showing all versions in a single sentence.
answered 4 hours ago
chasly from UK
22.7k13068
answered 4 hours ago
chasly from UK
22.7k13068
answered 4 hours ago
chasly from UK
22.7k13068
answered 4 hours ago
chasly from UK
22.7k13068
22.7k13068
2
Which is which case?
– Mitch
4 hours ago
2
All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
– John Lawler
39 mins ago
This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
– Jesse Steele
39 mins ago
add a comment |
2
Which is which case?
– Mitch
4 hours ago
2
All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
– John Lawler
39 mins ago
This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
– Jesse Steele
39 mins ago
2
2
Which is which case?
– Mitch
4 hours ago
Which is which case?
– Mitch
4 hours ago
2
2
All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
All versions… except the object form which is the main point in this question.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
– John Lawler
39 mins ago
It looks like the first ye is the indirect object of comfort, if I (i.e, God) is still the subject of comfort, saying "(I will) comfort ye your hearts". It's strange to see a nominative in that position.
– John Lawler
39 mins ago
This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
– Jesse Steele
39 mins ago
This is a useful answer because it demonstrates the nominative and objective uses.
– Jesse Steele
39 mins ago
add a comment |
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Leo DeCarlo is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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4
It’s almost too obvious, but it’s simply you and your. At least originally; there was a period of change when ye was also used both as subject and object, singular and plural, before the old accusative plural eventually took over the whole business. And of course there are dialects which now use ye for the plural (both cases) and you for the singular, which is historically ridonkulous, but perfectly common.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
4 hours ago
Possible duplicate of Peculiar mix of "ye" and "you"
– sumelic
3 hours ago
You are missing the fact that "thou", "thee" and "thine" were the informal singular pronouns similar to the French "tu" and its related pronouns while "you" "ye" and "your" were the plural and formal pronouns similar to the French "vous" and its related pronouns. Formal English has only had one set of pronouns for the second person for a couple of centuries and "ye" was dropped about the same time.
– BoldBen
3 hours ago
1
@BoldBen It’s not stated outright in the question, but the way I read it, Leo does understand that thou was singular and ye was plural (the informal/formal distinction may be a different matter).
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago