A question on the completeness of $(C[a,b], sup)$ where $[a,b] subset mathbb{R}$
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I do this proof in 3 steps
First I pick a Cauchy sequence of $f_n(x) in C[a,b]$ and then fix an $epsilon >0$ and some $x in [a,b]$ then constitute $f(x)$ s.t $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in absolute value.
then I try to prove that this limit $f(x)$ is continuous and $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in sup-norm.
Which is a very long proof.
The second proof is.
Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence in $C[a,b]$
then for all $epsilon >0$ there exists an $N(epsilon)$ s.t. for all $n,m>N(epsilon)$ we have $| f_m -f_n |_{infty} < epsilon$ which implies $| f_m(x) - f_n(x) | <epsilon$ for all $x in [a,b]$ then ${f_n(x)}$ is uniformly cauchy on $[a,b]$. Then by the following Theorem.
Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on
$A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$.
Then we deduce that the $f_n to f$ uniformly on $[a,b]$
But given that $f_n$ are continuous functions then by uniform convergence we know that $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$
then by definition of uniform convergence we have that for all $x in [a,b]$, for all $epsilon >0$ $exists N(epsilon )$ st $forall n>N(epsilon )$ $| f_n(x) - f(x) | < epsilon$ $implies$ $| f_n - f |_{infty} < epsilon$
Does the second proof suffice?
real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification proof-writing banach-spaces
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I do this proof in 3 steps
First I pick a Cauchy sequence of $f_n(x) in C[a,b]$ and then fix an $epsilon >0$ and some $x in [a,b]$ then constitute $f(x)$ s.t $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in absolute value.
then I try to prove that this limit $f(x)$ is continuous and $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in sup-norm.
Which is a very long proof.
The second proof is.
Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence in $C[a,b]$
then for all $epsilon >0$ there exists an $N(epsilon)$ s.t. for all $n,m>N(epsilon)$ we have $| f_m -f_n |_{infty} < epsilon$ which implies $| f_m(x) - f_n(x) | <epsilon$ for all $x in [a,b]$ then ${f_n(x)}$ is uniformly cauchy on $[a,b]$. Then by the following Theorem.
Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on
$A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$.
Then we deduce that the $f_n to f$ uniformly on $[a,b]$
But given that $f_n$ are continuous functions then by uniform convergence we know that $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$
then by definition of uniform convergence we have that for all $x in [a,b]$, for all $epsilon >0$ $exists N(epsilon )$ st $forall n>N(epsilon )$ $| f_n(x) - f(x) | < epsilon$ $implies$ $| f_n - f |_{infty} < epsilon$
Does the second proof suffice?
real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification proof-writing banach-spaces
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I do this proof in 3 steps
First I pick a Cauchy sequence of $f_n(x) in C[a,b]$ and then fix an $epsilon >0$ and some $x in [a,b]$ then constitute $f(x)$ s.t $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in absolute value.
then I try to prove that this limit $f(x)$ is continuous and $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in sup-norm.
Which is a very long proof.
The second proof is.
Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence in $C[a,b]$
then for all $epsilon >0$ there exists an $N(epsilon)$ s.t. for all $n,m>N(epsilon)$ we have $| f_m -f_n |_{infty} < epsilon$ which implies $| f_m(x) - f_n(x) | <epsilon$ for all $x in [a,b]$ then ${f_n(x)}$ is uniformly cauchy on $[a,b]$. Then by the following Theorem.
Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on
$A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$.
Then we deduce that the $f_n to f$ uniformly on $[a,b]$
But given that $f_n$ are continuous functions then by uniform convergence we know that $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$
then by definition of uniform convergence we have that for all $x in [a,b]$, for all $epsilon >0$ $exists N(epsilon )$ st $forall n>N(epsilon )$ $| f_n(x) - f(x) | < epsilon$ $implies$ $| f_n - f |_{infty} < epsilon$
Does the second proof suffice?
real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification proof-writing banach-spaces
$endgroup$
I do this proof in 3 steps
First I pick a Cauchy sequence of $f_n(x) in C[a,b]$ and then fix an $epsilon >0$ and some $x in [a,b]$ then constitute $f(x)$ s.t $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in absolute value.
then I try to prove that this limit $f(x)$ is continuous and $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in sup-norm.
Which is a very long proof.
The second proof is.
Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence in $C[a,b]$
then for all $epsilon >0$ there exists an $N(epsilon)$ s.t. for all $n,m>N(epsilon)$ we have $| f_m -f_n |_{infty} < epsilon$ which implies $| f_m(x) - f_n(x) | <epsilon$ for all $x in [a,b]$ then ${f_n(x)}$ is uniformly cauchy on $[a,b]$. Then by the following Theorem.
Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on
$A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$.
Then we deduce that the $f_n to f$ uniformly on $[a,b]$
But given that $f_n$ are continuous functions then by uniform convergence we know that $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$
then by definition of uniform convergence we have that for all $x in [a,b]$, for all $epsilon >0$ $exists N(epsilon )$ st $forall n>N(epsilon )$ $| f_n(x) - f(x) | < epsilon$ $implies$ $| f_n - f |_{infty} < epsilon$
Does the second proof suffice?
real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification proof-writing banach-spaces
real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification proof-writing banach-spaces
edited Jan 2 at 17:24
Davide Giraudo
127k16151265
127k16151265
asked Jan 2 at 12:42
Dreamer123Dreamer123
32729
32729
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
In your second 'proof' you are assuming what you have to prove. You have to first find a continuous function $f$ and then prove uniform convergence. The statement that ${f_n}$ is Cauchy means that given $epsilon >0$ there exists $k$ (independent of $x$) such that $|f_n(x)-f_m(x)| <epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n,m >k$. $cdots (1)$. In particular, you can fix $x$ an conclude that the sequence ${f_n(x)}$ of real numbers is Cauchy, hence convergent. Let $f(x)$ be the limit of this sequence. In (1) if you take limit as $m to infty$ you get $|f_n(x)-f(x)| leq epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n >k$. This means $f_n to f$ uniformly which implies that $f$ is continuous and the convergence takes place in the metric of $C[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Jan 8 at 17:16
1
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 8 at 23:11
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
In your second 'proof' you are assuming what you have to prove. You have to first find a continuous function $f$ and then prove uniform convergence. The statement that ${f_n}$ is Cauchy means that given $epsilon >0$ there exists $k$ (independent of $x$) such that $|f_n(x)-f_m(x)| <epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n,m >k$. $cdots (1)$. In particular, you can fix $x$ an conclude that the sequence ${f_n(x)}$ of real numbers is Cauchy, hence convergent. Let $f(x)$ be the limit of this sequence. In (1) if you take limit as $m to infty$ you get $|f_n(x)-f(x)| leq epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n >k$. This means $f_n to f$ uniformly which implies that $f$ is continuous and the convergence takes place in the metric of $C[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Jan 8 at 17:16
1
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 8 at 23:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In your second 'proof' you are assuming what you have to prove. You have to first find a continuous function $f$ and then prove uniform convergence. The statement that ${f_n}$ is Cauchy means that given $epsilon >0$ there exists $k$ (independent of $x$) such that $|f_n(x)-f_m(x)| <epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n,m >k$. $cdots (1)$. In particular, you can fix $x$ an conclude that the sequence ${f_n(x)}$ of real numbers is Cauchy, hence convergent. Let $f(x)$ be the limit of this sequence. In (1) if you take limit as $m to infty$ you get $|f_n(x)-f(x)| leq epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n >k$. This means $f_n to f$ uniformly which implies that $f$ is continuous and the convergence takes place in the metric of $C[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Jan 8 at 17:16
1
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 8 at 23:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In your second 'proof' you are assuming what you have to prove. You have to first find a continuous function $f$ and then prove uniform convergence. The statement that ${f_n}$ is Cauchy means that given $epsilon >0$ there exists $k$ (independent of $x$) such that $|f_n(x)-f_m(x)| <epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n,m >k$. $cdots (1)$. In particular, you can fix $x$ an conclude that the sequence ${f_n(x)}$ of real numbers is Cauchy, hence convergent. Let $f(x)$ be the limit of this sequence. In (1) if you take limit as $m to infty$ you get $|f_n(x)-f(x)| leq epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n >k$. This means $f_n to f$ uniformly which implies that $f$ is continuous and the convergence takes place in the metric of $C[0,1]$.
$endgroup$
In your second 'proof' you are assuming what you have to prove. You have to first find a continuous function $f$ and then prove uniform convergence. The statement that ${f_n}$ is Cauchy means that given $epsilon >0$ there exists $k$ (independent of $x$) such that $|f_n(x)-f_m(x)| <epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n,m >k$. $cdots (1)$. In particular, you can fix $x$ an conclude that the sequence ${f_n(x)}$ of real numbers is Cauchy, hence convergent. Let $f(x)$ be the limit of this sequence. In (1) if you take limit as $m to infty$ you get $|f_n(x)-f(x)| leq epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n >k$. This means $f_n to f$ uniformly which implies that $f$ is continuous and the convergence takes place in the metric of $C[0,1]$.
edited Jan 3 at 6:10
answered Jan 2 at 12:54
Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy
63.7k42464
63.7k42464
$begingroup$
I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Jan 8 at 17:16
1
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 8 at 23:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Jan 8 at 17:16
1
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 8 at 23:11
$begingroup$
I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Jan 8 at 17:16
$begingroup$
I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Dreamer123
Jan 8 at 17:16
1
1
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 8 at 23:11
$begingroup$
@Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Jan 8 at 23:11
add a comment |
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