A question on the completeness of $(C[a,b], sup)$ where $[a,b] subset mathbb{R}$












0












$begingroup$


I do this proof in 3 steps



First I pick a Cauchy sequence of $f_n(x) in C[a,b]$ and then fix an $epsilon >0$ and some $x in [a,b]$ then constitute $f(x)$ s.t $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in absolute value.



then I try to prove that this limit $f(x)$ is continuous and $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in sup-norm.



Which is a very long proof.



The second proof is.



Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence in $C[a,b]$
then for all $epsilon >0$ there exists an $N(epsilon)$ s.t. for all $n,m>N(epsilon)$ we have $| f_m -f_n |_{infty} < epsilon$ which implies $| f_m(x) - f_n(x) | <epsilon$ for all $x in [a,b]$ then ${f_n(x)}$ is uniformly cauchy on $[a,b]$. Then by the following Theorem.



Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on
$A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$.



Then we deduce that the $f_n to f$ uniformly on $[a,b]$



But given that $f_n$ are continuous functions then by uniform convergence we know that $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$



then by definition of uniform convergence we have that for all $x in [a,b]$, for all $epsilon >0$ $exists N(epsilon )$ st $forall n>N(epsilon )$ $| f_n(x) - f(x) | < epsilon$ $implies$ $| f_n - f |_{infty} < epsilon$



Does the second proof suffice?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I do this proof in 3 steps



    First I pick a Cauchy sequence of $f_n(x) in C[a,b]$ and then fix an $epsilon >0$ and some $x in [a,b]$ then constitute $f(x)$ s.t $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in absolute value.



    then I try to prove that this limit $f(x)$ is continuous and $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in sup-norm.



    Which is a very long proof.



    The second proof is.



    Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence in $C[a,b]$
    then for all $epsilon >0$ there exists an $N(epsilon)$ s.t. for all $n,m>N(epsilon)$ we have $| f_m -f_n |_{infty} < epsilon$ which implies $| f_m(x) - f_n(x) | <epsilon$ for all $x in [a,b]$ then ${f_n(x)}$ is uniformly cauchy on $[a,b]$. Then by the following Theorem.



    Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on
    $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$.



    Then we deduce that the $f_n to f$ uniformly on $[a,b]$



    But given that $f_n$ are continuous functions then by uniform convergence we know that $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$



    then by definition of uniform convergence we have that for all $x in [a,b]$, for all $epsilon >0$ $exists N(epsilon )$ st $forall n>N(epsilon )$ $| f_n(x) - f(x) | < epsilon$ $implies$ $| f_n - f |_{infty} < epsilon$



    Does the second proof suffice?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I do this proof in 3 steps



      First I pick a Cauchy sequence of $f_n(x) in C[a,b]$ and then fix an $epsilon >0$ and some $x in [a,b]$ then constitute $f(x)$ s.t $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in absolute value.



      then I try to prove that this limit $f(x)$ is continuous and $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in sup-norm.



      Which is a very long proof.



      The second proof is.



      Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence in $C[a,b]$
      then for all $epsilon >0$ there exists an $N(epsilon)$ s.t. for all $n,m>N(epsilon)$ we have $| f_m -f_n |_{infty} < epsilon$ which implies $| f_m(x) - f_n(x) | <epsilon$ for all $x in [a,b]$ then ${f_n(x)}$ is uniformly cauchy on $[a,b]$. Then by the following Theorem.



      Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on
      $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$.



      Then we deduce that the $f_n to f$ uniformly on $[a,b]$



      But given that $f_n$ are continuous functions then by uniform convergence we know that $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$



      then by definition of uniform convergence we have that for all $x in [a,b]$, for all $epsilon >0$ $exists N(epsilon )$ st $forall n>N(epsilon )$ $| f_n(x) - f(x) | < epsilon$ $implies$ $| f_n - f |_{infty} < epsilon$



      Does the second proof suffice?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I do this proof in 3 steps



      First I pick a Cauchy sequence of $f_n(x) in C[a,b]$ and then fix an $epsilon >0$ and some $x in [a,b]$ then constitute $f(x)$ s.t $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in absolute value.



      then I try to prove that this limit $f(x)$ is continuous and $lim_{n to infty} f_n(x)=f(x)$ in sup-norm.



      Which is a very long proof.



      The second proof is.



      Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence in $C[a,b]$
      then for all $epsilon >0$ there exists an $N(epsilon)$ s.t. for all $n,m>N(epsilon)$ we have $| f_m -f_n |_{infty} < epsilon$ which implies $| f_m(x) - f_n(x) | <epsilon$ for all $x in [a,b]$ then ${f_n(x)}$ is uniformly cauchy on $[a,b]$. Then by the following Theorem.



      Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on
      $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$.



      Then we deduce that the $f_n to f$ uniformly on $[a,b]$



      But given that $f_n$ are continuous functions then by uniform convergence we know that $f$ is continuous on $[a,b]$



      then by definition of uniform convergence we have that for all $x in [a,b]$, for all $epsilon >0$ $exists N(epsilon )$ st $forall n>N(epsilon )$ $| f_n(x) - f(x) | < epsilon$ $implies$ $| f_n - f |_{infty} < epsilon$



      Does the second proof suffice?







      real-analysis functional-analysis proof-verification proof-writing banach-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 2 at 17:24









      Davide Giraudo

      127k16151265




      127k16151265










      asked Jan 2 at 12:42









      Dreamer123Dreamer123

      32729




      32729






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          In your second 'proof' you are assuming what you have to prove. You have to first find a continuous function $f$ and then prove uniform convergence. The statement that ${f_n}$ is Cauchy means that given $epsilon >0$ there exists $k$ (independent of $x$) such that $|f_n(x)-f_m(x)| <epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n,m >k$. $cdots (1)$. In particular, you can fix $x$ an conclude that the sequence ${f_n(x)}$ of real numbers is Cauchy, hence convergent. Let $f(x)$ be the limit of this sequence. In (1) if you take limit as $m to infty$ you get $|f_n(x)-f(x)| leq epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n >k$. This means $f_n to f$ uniformly which implies that $f$ is continuous and the convergence takes place in the metric of $C[0,1]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Dreamer123
            Jan 8 at 17:16






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 8 at 23:11











          Your Answer





          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          });
          });
          }, "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function() {
          var channelOptions = {
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          };
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
          createEditor();
          });
          }
          else {
          createEditor();
          }
          });

          function createEditor() {
          StackExchange.prepareEditor({
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: true,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          imageUploader: {
          brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
          contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
          allowUrls: true
          },
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          });


          }
          });














          draft saved

          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3059432%2fa-question-on-the-completeness-of-ca-b-sup-where-a-b-subset-mathbb%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown

























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          In your second 'proof' you are assuming what you have to prove. You have to first find a continuous function $f$ and then prove uniform convergence. The statement that ${f_n}$ is Cauchy means that given $epsilon >0$ there exists $k$ (independent of $x$) such that $|f_n(x)-f_m(x)| <epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n,m >k$. $cdots (1)$. In particular, you can fix $x$ an conclude that the sequence ${f_n(x)}$ of real numbers is Cauchy, hence convergent. Let $f(x)$ be the limit of this sequence. In (1) if you take limit as $m to infty$ you get $|f_n(x)-f(x)| leq epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n >k$. This means $f_n to f$ uniformly which implies that $f$ is continuous and the convergence takes place in the metric of $C[0,1]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Dreamer123
            Jan 8 at 17:16






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 8 at 23:11
















          1












          $begingroup$

          In your second 'proof' you are assuming what you have to prove. You have to first find a continuous function $f$ and then prove uniform convergence. The statement that ${f_n}$ is Cauchy means that given $epsilon >0$ there exists $k$ (independent of $x$) such that $|f_n(x)-f_m(x)| <epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n,m >k$. $cdots (1)$. In particular, you can fix $x$ an conclude that the sequence ${f_n(x)}$ of real numbers is Cauchy, hence convergent. Let $f(x)$ be the limit of this sequence. In (1) if you take limit as $m to infty$ you get $|f_n(x)-f(x)| leq epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n >k$. This means $f_n to f$ uniformly which implies that $f$ is continuous and the convergence takes place in the metric of $C[0,1]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Dreamer123
            Jan 8 at 17:16






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 8 at 23:11














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          In your second 'proof' you are assuming what you have to prove. You have to first find a continuous function $f$ and then prove uniform convergence. The statement that ${f_n}$ is Cauchy means that given $epsilon >0$ there exists $k$ (independent of $x$) such that $|f_n(x)-f_m(x)| <epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n,m >k$. $cdots (1)$. In particular, you can fix $x$ an conclude that the sequence ${f_n(x)}$ of real numbers is Cauchy, hence convergent. Let $f(x)$ be the limit of this sequence. In (1) if you take limit as $m to infty$ you get $|f_n(x)-f(x)| leq epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n >k$. This means $f_n to f$ uniformly which implies that $f$ is continuous and the convergence takes place in the metric of $C[0,1]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          In your second 'proof' you are assuming what you have to prove. You have to first find a continuous function $f$ and then prove uniform convergence. The statement that ${f_n}$ is Cauchy means that given $epsilon >0$ there exists $k$ (independent of $x$) such that $|f_n(x)-f_m(x)| <epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n,m >k$. $cdots (1)$. In particular, you can fix $x$ an conclude that the sequence ${f_n(x)}$ of real numbers is Cauchy, hence convergent. Let $f(x)$ be the limit of this sequence. In (1) if you take limit as $m to infty$ you get $|f_n(x)-f(x)| leq epsilon$ for all $x$ for all $n >k$. This means $f_n to f$ uniformly which implies that $f$ is continuous and the convergence takes place in the metric of $C[0,1]$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 3 at 6:10

























          answered Jan 2 at 12:54









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          63.7k42464




          63.7k42464












          • $begingroup$
            I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Dreamer123
            Jan 8 at 17:16






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 8 at 23:11


















          • $begingroup$
            I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Dreamer123
            Jan 8 at 17:16






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Jan 8 at 23:11
















          $begingroup$
          I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
          $endgroup$
          – Dreamer123
          Jan 8 at 17:16




          $begingroup$
          I used this theorem Theorem. A sequence ${f_n}$ of functions $f_n : A tomathbb R$ converges uniformly on $A$ if and only if it is uniformly Cauchy on $A$. which as I understood it tells me that the sequence converges uniformly to some limite I called $f$ on $[a,b]$ so the theorem tells that the limit exist but we don't know where it lives then I used another theorem which I edited in the question. Thank you
          $endgroup$
          – Dreamer123
          Jan 8 at 17:16




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jan 8 at 23:11




          $begingroup$
          @Dreamer123 The question here is what results can be used and what cannot be used. You are using two theorems which make the question trivial, but usually a question like this is supposed to be answered without use of such theorems. I have just followed standard practice in my answer.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Jan 8 at 23:11


















          draft saved

          draft discarded




















































          Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3059432%2fa-question-on-the-completeness-of-ca-b-sup-where-a-b-subset-mathbb%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown





















































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown

































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown







          Popular posts from this blog

          Quarter-circle Tiles

          build a pushdown automaton that recognizes the reverse language of a given pushdown automaton?

          Mont Emei