Question on the equivalent definition of $R$-modules.











up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.



I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.




Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.




The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.



Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.



And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.



Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 2




    A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 19 at 22:09








  • 6




    The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
    – Eric Wofsey
    Nov 19 at 22:20















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.



I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.




Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.




The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.



Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.



And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.



Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 2




    A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 19 at 22:09








  • 6




    The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
    – Eric Wofsey
    Nov 19 at 22:20













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.



I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.




Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.




The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.



Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.



And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.



Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.



I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.




Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.




The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.



Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.



And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.



Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.



Thank you.







abstract-algebra modules definition






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 19 at 22:13









Bernard

116k637108




116k637108










asked Nov 19 at 22:02









Chris

836411




836411








  • 2




    A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 19 at 22:09








  • 6




    The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
    – Eric Wofsey
    Nov 19 at 22:20














  • 2




    A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 19 at 22:09








  • 6




    The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
    – Eric Wofsey
    Nov 19 at 22:20








2




2




A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 19 at 22:09






A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 19 at 22:09






6




6




The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
– Eric Wofsey
Nov 19 at 22:20




The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
– Eric Wofsey
Nov 19 at 22:20










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
$$
varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
$$

If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.



It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.



By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.



If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.



A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
    – Chris
    Nov 19 at 23:46








  • 1




    @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
    – egreg
    Nov 19 at 23:58










  • Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
    – Chris
    Nov 20 at 13:34






  • 1




    @Chris Yes, it is correct.
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 13:41






  • 1




    @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 20:13


















up vote
0
down vote













Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.



Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,




  1. (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
    begin{align}
    μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
    m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
    end{align}

    which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.


(ii) The map
begin{align}
μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
end{align}

is a ring homomorphism.




  1. Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication


begin{align}
cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
(r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
end{align}

is an $R$-module.






share|cite|improve this answer























    Your Answer





    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    });
    });
    }, "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function() {
    var channelOptions = {
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    };
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
    createEditor();
    });
    }
    else {
    createEditor();
    }
    });

    function createEditor() {
    StackExchange.prepareEditor({
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: true,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    imageUploader: {
    brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
    contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
    allowUrls: true
    },
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    });


    }
    });














    draft saved

    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function () {
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3005589%2fquestion-on-the-equivalent-definition-of-r-modules%23new-answer', 'question_page');
    }
    );

    Post as a guest















    Required, but never shown

























    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
    $$
    varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
    $$

    If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.



    It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.



    By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.



    If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.



    A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
      – Chris
      Nov 19 at 23:46








    • 1




      @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
      – egreg
      Nov 19 at 23:58










    • Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
      – Chris
      Nov 20 at 13:34






    • 1




      @Chris Yes, it is correct.
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 13:41






    • 1




      @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 20:13















    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
    $$
    varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
    $$

    If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.



    It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.



    By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.



    If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.



    A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
      – Chris
      Nov 19 at 23:46








    • 1




      @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
      – egreg
      Nov 19 at 23:58










    • Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
      – Chris
      Nov 20 at 13:34






    • 1




      @Chris Yes, it is correct.
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 13:41






    • 1




      @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 20:13













    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted






    An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
    $$
    varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
    $$

    If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.



    It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.



    By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.



    If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.



    A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).






    share|cite|improve this answer












    An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
    $$
    varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
    $$

    If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.



    It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.



    By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.



    If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.



    A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Nov 19 at 22:47









    egreg

    175k1383198




    175k1383198












    • Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
      – Chris
      Nov 19 at 23:46








    • 1




      @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
      – egreg
      Nov 19 at 23:58










    • Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
      – Chris
      Nov 20 at 13:34






    • 1




      @Chris Yes, it is correct.
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 13:41






    • 1




      @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 20:13


















    • Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
      – Chris
      Nov 19 at 23:46








    • 1




      @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
      – egreg
      Nov 19 at 23:58










    • Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
      – Chris
      Nov 20 at 13:34






    • 1




      @Chris Yes, it is correct.
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 13:41






    • 1




      @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 20:13
















    Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
    – Chris
    Nov 19 at 23:46






    Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
    – Chris
    Nov 19 at 23:46






    1




    1




    @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
    – egreg
    Nov 19 at 23:58




    @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
    – egreg
    Nov 19 at 23:58












    Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
    – Chris
    Nov 20 at 13:34




    Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
    – Chris
    Nov 20 at 13:34




    1




    1




    @Chris Yes, it is correct.
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 13:41




    @Chris Yes, it is correct.
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 13:41




    1




    1




    @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 20:13




    @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 20:13










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.



    Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,




    1. (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
      begin{align}
      μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
      m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
      end{align}

      which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.


    (ii) The map
    begin{align}
    μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
    r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
    end{align}

    is a ring homomorphism.




    1. Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication


    begin{align}
    cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
    (r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
    end{align}

    is an $R$-module.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.



      Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,




      1. (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
        begin{align}
        μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
        m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
        end{align}

        which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.


      (ii) The map
      begin{align}
      μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
      r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
      end{align}

      is a ring homomorphism.




      1. Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication


      begin{align}
      cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
      (r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
      end{align}

      is an $R$-module.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.



        Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,




        1. (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
          begin{align}
          μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
          m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
          end{align}

          which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.


        (ii) The map
        begin{align}
        μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
        r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
        end{align}

        is a ring homomorphism.




        1. Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication


        begin{align}
        cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
        (r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
        end{align}

        is an $R$-module.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.



        Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,




        1. (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
          begin{align}
          μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
          m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
          end{align}

          which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.


        (ii) The map
        begin{align}
        μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
        r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
        end{align}

        is a ring homomorphism.




        1. Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication


        begin{align}
        cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
        (r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
        end{align}

        is an $R$-module.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 20 at 13:56

























        answered Nov 20 at 1:13









        Chris

        836411




        836411






























            draft saved

            draft discarded




















































            Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





            Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


            Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3005589%2fquestion-on-the-equivalent-definition-of-r-modules%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown





















































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown

































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown







            Popular posts from this blog

            Ellipse (mathématiques)

            Quarter-circle Tiles

            Mont Emei