Question on the equivalent definition of $R$-modules.











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Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.



I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.




Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.




The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.



Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.



And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.



Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 2




    A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 19 at 22:09








  • 6




    The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
    – Eric Wofsey
    Nov 19 at 22:20















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.



I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.




Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.




The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.



Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.



And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.



Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 2




    A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 19 at 22:09








  • 6




    The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
    – Eric Wofsey
    Nov 19 at 22:20













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.



I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.




Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.




The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.



Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.



And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.



Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.



I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.




Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.




The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.



Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.



And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.



Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.



Thank you.







abstract-algebra modules definition






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 19 at 22:13









Bernard

116k637108




116k637108










asked Nov 19 at 22:02









Chris

836411




836411








  • 2




    A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 19 at 22:09








  • 6




    The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
    – Eric Wofsey
    Nov 19 at 22:20














  • 2




    A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
    – Daniel Schepler
    Nov 19 at 22:09








  • 6




    The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
    – Eric Wofsey
    Nov 19 at 22:20








2




2




A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 19 at 22:09






A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 19 at 22:09






6




6




The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
– Eric Wofsey
Nov 19 at 22:20




The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
– Eric Wofsey
Nov 19 at 22:20










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
$$
varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
$$

If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.



It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.



By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.



If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.



A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
    – Chris
    Nov 19 at 23:46








  • 1




    @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
    – egreg
    Nov 19 at 23:58










  • Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
    – Chris
    Nov 20 at 13:34






  • 1




    @Chris Yes, it is correct.
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 13:41






  • 1




    @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 20:13


















up vote
0
down vote













Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.



Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,




  1. (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
    begin{align}
    μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
    m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
    end{align}

    which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.


(ii) The map
begin{align}
μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
end{align}

is a ring homomorphism.




  1. Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication


begin{align}
cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
(r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
end{align}

is an $R$-module.






share|cite|improve this answer























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    2 Answers
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    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
    $$
    varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
    $$

    If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.



    It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.



    By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.



    If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.



    A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
      – Chris
      Nov 19 at 23:46








    • 1




      @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
      – egreg
      Nov 19 at 23:58










    • Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
      – Chris
      Nov 20 at 13:34






    • 1




      @Chris Yes, it is correct.
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 13:41






    • 1




      @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 20:13















    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted










    An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
    $$
    varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
    $$

    If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.



    It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.



    By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.



    If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.



    A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
      – Chris
      Nov 19 at 23:46








    • 1




      @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
      – egreg
      Nov 19 at 23:58










    • Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
      – Chris
      Nov 20 at 13:34






    • 1




      @Chris Yes, it is correct.
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 13:41






    • 1




      @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 20:13













    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    2
    down vote



    accepted






    An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
    $$
    varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
    $$

    If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.



    It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.



    By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.



    If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.



    A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).






    share|cite|improve this answer












    An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
    $$
    varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
    $$

    If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.



    It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.



    By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.



    If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.



    A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Nov 19 at 22:47









    egreg

    175k1383198




    175k1383198












    • Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
      – Chris
      Nov 19 at 23:46








    • 1




      @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
      – egreg
      Nov 19 at 23:58










    • Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
      – Chris
      Nov 20 at 13:34






    • 1




      @Chris Yes, it is correct.
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 13:41






    • 1




      @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 20:13


















    • Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
      – Chris
      Nov 19 at 23:46








    • 1




      @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
      – egreg
      Nov 19 at 23:58










    • Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
      – Chris
      Nov 20 at 13:34






    • 1




      @Chris Yes, it is correct.
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 13:41






    • 1




      @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
      – egreg
      Nov 20 at 20:13
















    Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
    – Chris
    Nov 19 at 23:46






    Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
    – Chris
    Nov 19 at 23:46






    1




    1




    @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
    – egreg
    Nov 19 at 23:58




    @Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
    – egreg
    Nov 19 at 23:58












    Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
    – Chris
    Nov 20 at 13:34




    Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
    – Chris
    Nov 20 at 13:34




    1




    1




    @Chris Yes, it is correct.
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 13:41




    @Chris Yes, it is correct.
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 13:41




    1




    1




    @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 20:13




    @Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
    – egreg
    Nov 20 at 20:13










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.



    Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,




    1. (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
      begin{align}
      μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
      m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
      end{align}

      which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.


    (ii) The map
    begin{align}
    μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
    r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
    end{align}

    is a ring homomorphism.




    1. Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication


    begin{align}
    cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
    (r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
    end{align}

    is an $R$-module.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.



      Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,




      1. (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
        begin{align}
        μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
        m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
        end{align}

        which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.


      (ii) The map
      begin{align}
      μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
      r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
      end{align}

      is a ring homomorphism.




      1. Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication


      begin{align}
      cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
      (r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
      end{align}

      is an $R$-module.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
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        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.



        Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,




        1. (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
          begin{align}
          μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
          m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
          end{align}

          which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.


        (ii) The map
        begin{align}
        μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
        r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
        end{align}

        is a ring homomorphism.




        1. Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication


        begin{align}
        cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
        (r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
        end{align}

        is an $R$-module.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.



        Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,




        1. (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
          begin{align}
          μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
          m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
          end{align}

          which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.


        (ii) The map
        begin{align}
        μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
        r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
        end{align}

        is a ring homomorphism.




        1. Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication


        begin{align}
        cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
        (r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
        end{align}

        is an $R$-module.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 20 at 13:56

























        answered Nov 20 at 1:13









        Chris

        836411




        836411






























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