Question on the equivalent definition of $R$-modules.
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.
I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.
Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.
The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.
Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.
And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.
Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.
Thank you.
abstract-algebra modules definition
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.
I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.
Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.
The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.
Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.
And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.
Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.
Thank you.
abstract-algebra modules definition
2
A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 19 at 22:09
6
The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
– Eric Wofsey
Nov 19 at 22:20
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.
I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.
Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.
The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.
Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.
And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.
Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.
Thank you.
abstract-algebra modules definition
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1_R$.
I found the following theorem as an equivalent definition of $R-$modules.
Theorem. An abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module iff there is a ring homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$.
The proof is not difficult but let me ask something.
Could we claim that the theorem is still valid, if $R$ is not commutative? So, left $R-modules are in general different from the right.
And if the answer is yes, if we have an abelian group $(M,+)$, and there exists a homomorphism $varphi:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_R(M)$, then we can construct both left and right $R-$modules.
Is this right? Please, explain your answers please.
Thank you.
abstract-algebra modules definition
abstract-algebra modules definition
edited Nov 19 at 22:13
Bernard
116k637108
116k637108
asked Nov 19 at 22:02
Chris
836411
836411
2
A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 19 at 22:09
6
The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
– Eric Wofsey
Nov 19 at 22:20
add a comment |
2
A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 19 at 22:09
6
The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
– Eric Wofsey
Nov 19 at 22:20
2
2
A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 19 at 22:09
A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 19 at 22:09
6
6
The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
– Eric Wofsey
Nov 19 at 22:20
The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
– Eric Wofsey
Nov 19 at 22:20
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
$$
varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
$$
If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.
It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.
By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.
If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.
A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).
Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
– Chris
Nov 19 at 23:46
1
@Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
– egreg
Nov 19 at 23:58
Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
– Chris
Nov 20 at 13:34
1
@Chris Yes, it is correct.
– egreg
Nov 20 at 13:41
1
@Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
– egreg
Nov 20 at 20:13
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.
Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,
- (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
begin{align}
μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
end{align}
which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.
(ii) The map
begin{align}
μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
end{align}
is a ring homomorphism.
- Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication
begin{align}
cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
(r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
end{align}
is an $R$-module.
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
$$
varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
$$
If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.
It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.
By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.
If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.
A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).
Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
– Chris
Nov 19 at 23:46
1
@Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
– egreg
Nov 19 at 23:58
Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
– Chris
Nov 20 at 13:34
1
@Chris Yes, it is correct.
– egreg
Nov 20 at 13:41
1
@Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
– egreg
Nov 20 at 20:13
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
$$
varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
$$
If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.
It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.
By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.
If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.
A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).
Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
– Chris
Nov 19 at 23:46
1
@Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
– egreg
Nov 19 at 23:58
Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
– Chris
Nov 20 at 13:34
1
@Chris Yes, it is correct.
– egreg
Nov 20 at 13:41
1
@Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
– egreg
Nov 20 at 20:13
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
$$
varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
$$
If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.
It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.
By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.
If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.
A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).
An abelian group $M$ can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism
$$
varphicolon Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)
$$
If $M$ is given a structure of $R$-module, then the homomorphism $varphi$ is defined by $phi(r)colon xmapsto rx$. Conversely, given the ring homomorphism $varphi$, we can define $rx=varphi(r)(x)$.
It is true that if $M$ has already been given the structure of $R$-module, then there exists a ring homomorphism $Rtooperatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ (for commutative $R$), but without a previous $R$-module structure, $operatorname{End}_{R}(M)$ doesn't make sense, so the statement cannot be “if and only if”.
By the way, there could be different ring homomorphisms $Rtooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, giving rise to different structures of $R$-modules on the abelian group $M$.
If you write maps on the left, then the condition about ring homomorphisms works also without the assumption that $R$ is commutative and defines left $R$-modules.
A structure of right $R$-module is given by a ring homomorphism $psicolon R^{mathrm{op}}tooperatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$, where $R^{mathrm{op}}$ is the opposite ring (with the same addition and multiplication $(r,s)mapsto sr$).
answered Nov 19 at 22:47
egreg
175k1383198
175k1383198
Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
– Chris
Nov 19 at 23:46
1
@Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
– egreg
Nov 19 at 23:58
Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
– Chris
Nov 20 at 13:34
1
@Chris Yes, it is correct.
– egreg
Nov 20 at 13:41
1
@Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
– egreg
Nov 20 at 20:13
|
show 1 more comment
Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
– Chris
Nov 19 at 23:46
1
@Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
– egreg
Nov 19 at 23:58
Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
– Chris
Nov 20 at 13:34
1
@Chris Yes, it is correct.
– egreg
Nov 20 at 13:41
1
@Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
– egreg
Nov 20 at 20:13
Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
– Chris
Nov 19 at 23:46
Thank you for this thorough answer. So, the statement should be "An abelian group M can be given the structure of $R$-module if and only if there exists a ring homomorphism $φ:R→mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$". Is this for a random unital ring $R$? 2) Could you, please, remind me the ring $mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$? Is this the ring consisting of all endomorphisms of $mathbb{Z}$-module $M$ ?
– Chris
Nov 19 at 23:46
1
1
@Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
– egreg
Nov 19 at 23:58
@Chris $R$ being unital is actually not relevant, but non unital rings are a big nuisance. The endomorphism ring $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ is indeed formed by the endomorphisms as abelian group (or, which is the same, as $mathbb{Z}$-module). Note that there exists a unique (unital) ring homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}$ to any ring, in particular to $operatorname{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$.
– egreg
Nov 19 at 23:58
Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
– Chris
Nov 20 at 13:34
Dear egreg, could you please verify if the statement in my answer is OK now? Of course the "credits" are yours! :)
– Chris
Nov 20 at 13:34
1
1
@Chris Yes, it is correct.
– egreg
Nov 20 at 13:41
@Chris Yes, it is correct.
– egreg
Nov 20 at 13:41
1
1
@Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
– egreg
Nov 20 at 20:13
@Chris It’s a direct check: composition of two $R$-linear maps is $R$-linear
– egreg
Nov 20 at 20:13
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.
Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,
- (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
begin{align}
μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
end{align}
which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.
(ii) The map
begin{align}
μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
end{align}
is a ring homomorphism.
- Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication
begin{align}
cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
(r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
end{align}
is an $R$-module.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.
Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,
- (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
begin{align}
μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
end{align}
which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.
(ii) The map
begin{align}
μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
end{align}
is a ring homomorphism.
- Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication
begin{align}
cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
(r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
end{align}
is an $R$-module.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.
Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,
- (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
begin{align}
μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
end{align}
which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.
(ii) The map
begin{align}
μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
end{align}
is a ring homomorphism.
- Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication
begin{align}
cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
(r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
end{align}
is an $R$-module.
Let me give a try to answer and improve the theorem. Please feel free to edit my answer.
Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring with $1_R$ and $(M,+)$ an abelian group ($iff mathbb{Z}$-module). Then,
- (i) For every $xin R$, there is a map
begin{align}
μ_x:M&longrightarrow M, \
m& longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m
end{align}
which is an endomorphism of abelian groups. That is, $μ_x in mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M) $.
(ii) The map
begin{align}
μ:R&longrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M),\
r&longmapsto μ(x):= μ_x : M longrightarrow M, m longmapsto μ_x(m):=xcdot m\
end{align}
is a ring homomorphism.
- Let $ν:Rlongrightarrow mathrm{End}_{mathbb{Z}}(M)$ a ring homomorphism. Then $(M,+)$ together with the scalar multiplication
begin{align}
cdot :R times M &longrightarrow M, \
(r,m)& longmapsto rcdot m:= ν(r)(m)
end{align}
is an $R$-module.
edited Nov 20 at 13:56
answered Nov 20 at 1:13
Chris
836411
836411
add a comment |
add a comment |
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A left $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$; on the other hand, a right $R$-module structure would be equivalent to a ring morphism $R^{op} to operatorname{End}_{Ab}(M)$ where $R^{op}$ is "$R$ with multiplication reversed".
– Daniel Schepler
Nov 19 at 22:09
6
The theorem is stated extremely poorly. It's not clear what "an abelian group $(M,+)$ is an $R$-module" is supposed to even mean. There is an interpretation for which the theorem is correct, but that interpretation would not make this "an equivalent definition of $R$-modules".
– Eric Wofsey
Nov 19 at 22:20