Understanding definition of subbasis of product topology











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According to Munkres, the product topology has a subbasis which the union of all $S_i$ such that:



$$S_i ={pi_i^{-1}(U): U text{ is open in }X_i }$$



I am quite certain that I am misunderstanding this definition. To me this looks like $S_i$ contains all Cartesian products such that the i'th element is open in $X_i$. However, that would make the union of all $S_i$ the power set of the product space. It looks to me like Munkres, and other resources as well, are treating this definition as one where $S_i$ comprises all sets of the form



$$dots X_{i-3}times X_{i-2} times X_{i-1} times U times X_{i+1} times X_{i+2} times dots$$



Where U is an open set in $X_i$. All other sets in this product are the entire space $X_j$. Why is this the case? Why, for instance, doesn't $S_i$ contain this set:



$$dots U_{i-3}times U_{i-2} times U_{i-1} times U times U_{i+1} times U_{i+2} times dots$$



Where $U_j$ may or may not be open in $X_j$ for $j neq i$?










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    According to Munkres, the product topology has a subbasis which the union of all $S_i$ such that:



    $$S_i ={pi_i^{-1}(U): U text{ is open in }X_i }$$



    I am quite certain that I am misunderstanding this definition. To me this looks like $S_i$ contains all Cartesian products such that the i'th element is open in $X_i$. However, that would make the union of all $S_i$ the power set of the product space. It looks to me like Munkres, and other resources as well, are treating this definition as one where $S_i$ comprises all sets of the form



    $$dots X_{i-3}times X_{i-2} times X_{i-1} times U times X_{i+1} times X_{i+2} times dots$$



    Where U is an open set in $X_i$. All other sets in this product are the entire space $X_j$. Why is this the case? Why, for instance, doesn't $S_i$ contain this set:



    $$dots U_{i-3}times U_{i-2} times U_{i-1} times U times U_{i+1} times U_{i+2} times dots$$



    Where $U_j$ may or may not be open in $X_j$ for $j neq i$?










    share|cite|improve this question


























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      favorite











      According to Munkres, the product topology has a subbasis which the union of all $S_i$ such that:



      $$S_i ={pi_i^{-1}(U): U text{ is open in }X_i }$$



      I am quite certain that I am misunderstanding this definition. To me this looks like $S_i$ contains all Cartesian products such that the i'th element is open in $X_i$. However, that would make the union of all $S_i$ the power set of the product space. It looks to me like Munkres, and other resources as well, are treating this definition as one where $S_i$ comprises all sets of the form



      $$dots X_{i-3}times X_{i-2} times X_{i-1} times U times X_{i+1} times X_{i+2} times dots$$



      Where U is an open set in $X_i$. All other sets in this product are the entire space $X_j$. Why is this the case? Why, for instance, doesn't $S_i$ contain this set:



      $$dots U_{i-3}times U_{i-2} times U_{i-1} times U times U_{i+1} times U_{i+2} times dots$$



      Where $U_j$ may or may not be open in $X_j$ for $j neq i$?










      share|cite|improve this question















      According to Munkres, the product topology has a subbasis which the union of all $S_i$ such that:



      $$S_i ={pi_i^{-1}(U): U text{ is open in }X_i }$$



      I am quite certain that I am misunderstanding this definition. To me this looks like $S_i$ contains all Cartesian products such that the i'th element is open in $X_i$. However, that would make the union of all $S_i$ the power set of the product space. It looks to me like Munkres, and other resources as well, are treating this definition as one where $S_i$ comprises all sets of the form



      $$dots X_{i-3}times X_{i-2} times X_{i-1} times U times X_{i+1} times X_{i+2} times dots$$



      Where U is an open set in $X_i$. All other sets in this product are the entire space $X_j$. Why is this the case? Why, for instance, doesn't $S_i$ contain this set:



      $$dots U_{i-3}times U_{i-2} times U_{i-1} times U times U_{i+1} times U_{i+2} times dots$$



      Where $U_j$ may or may not be open in $X_j$ for $j neq i$?







      general-topology






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      edited Nov 20 at 12:09

























      asked Nov 19 at 22:01









      Avatrin

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          You are misunderstanding $pi_i^{-1}(U)$. This is the set which has $X_j$ in the $j^{th}$ slot (for $jneq i$) and $U$ in the $i^{th}$ slot.



          For example, in $mathbb R^3$, one has $pi_1^{-1}(A) = Atimes{mathbb R}times{mathbb R}$.



          In other words, $pi_i^{-1}(U)$ is the single set of all points in the product which project into $U$ under the action of $pi_i$.






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            But your first formula is exactly what $pi_i^{-1}[U]$ means: the only condition for a point to be in that set, is that the $i$-th coordinate of that point is in $U$; all other coordinates are completely free.



            It contains the other set as a subset, but topologies aren't closed under subsets, so that doesn't mean anything. It can be written as $bigcap_{i in I} pi_i^{-1}[U_i]$, but that will be an infinite intersection, and topologies are only guaranteed to be closed under finite intersections.






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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
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              up vote
              1
              down vote













              You are misunderstanding $pi_i^{-1}(U)$. This is the set which has $X_j$ in the $j^{th}$ slot (for $jneq i$) and $U$ in the $i^{th}$ slot.



              For example, in $mathbb R^3$, one has $pi_1^{-1}(A) = Atimes{mathbb R}times{mathbb R}$.



              In other words, $pi_i^{-1}(U)$ is the single set of all points in the product which project into $U$ under the action of $pi_i$.






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                You are misunderstanding $pi_i^{-1}(U)$. This is the set which has $X_j$ in the $j^{th}$ slot (for $jneq i$) and $U$ in the $i^{th}$ slot.



                For example, in $mathbb R^3$, one has $pi_1^{-1}(A) = Atimes{mathbb R}times{mathbb R}$.



                In other words, $pi_i^{-1}(U)$ is the single set of all points in the product which project into $U$ under the action of $pi_i$.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  You are misunderstanding $pi_i^{-1}(U)$. This is the set which has $X_j$ in the $j^{th}$ slot (for $jneq i$) and $U$ in the $i^{th}$ slot.



                  For example, in $mathbb R^3$, one has $pi_1^{-1}(A) = Atimes{mathbb R}times{mathbb R}$.



                  In other words, $pi_i^{-1}(U)$ is the single set of all points in the product which project into $U$ under the action of $pi_i$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  You are misunderstanding $pi_i^{-1}(U)$. This is the set which has $X_j$ in the $j^{th}$ slot (for $jneq i$) and $U$ in the $i^{th}$ slot.



                  For example, in $mathbb R^3$, one has $pi_1^{-1}(A) = Atimes{mathbb R}times{mathbb R}$.



                  In other words, $pi_i^{-1}(U)$ is the single set of all points in the product which project into $U$ under the action of $pi_i$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 19 at 22:13

























                  answered Nov 19 at 22:06









                  MPW

                  29.7k11956




                  29.7k11956






















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      But your first formula is exactly what $pi_i^{-1}[U]$ means: the only condition for a point to be in that set, is that the $i$-th coordinate of that point is in $U$; all other coordinates are completely free.



                      It contains the other set as a subset, but topologies aren't closed under subsets, so that doesn't mean anything. It can be written as $bigcap_{i in I} pi_i^{-1}[U_i]$, but that will be an infinite intersection, and topologies are only guaranteed to be closed under finite intersections.






                      share|cite|improve this answer



























                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        But your first formula is exactly what $pi_i^{-1}[U]$ means: the only condition for a point to be in that set, is that the $i$-th coordinate of that point is in $U$; all other coordinates are completely free.



                        It contains the other set as a subset, but topologies aren't closed under subsets, so that doesn't mean anything. It can be written as $bigcap_{i in I} pi_i^{-1}[U_i]$, but that will be an infinite intersection, and topologies are only guaranteed to be closed under finite intersections.






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          But your first formula is exactly what $pi_i^{-1}[U]$ means: the only condition for a point to be in that set, is that the $i$-th coordinate of that point is in $U$; all other coordinates are completely free.



                          It contains the other set as a subset, but topologies aren't closed under subsets, so that doesn't mean anything. It can be written as $bigcap_{i in I} pi_i^{-1}[U_i]$, but that will be an infinite intersection, and topologies are only guaranteed to be closed under finite intersections.






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          But your first formula is exactly what $pi_i^{-1}[U]$ means: the only condition for a point to be in that set, is that the $i$-th coordinate of that point is in $U$; all other coordinates are completely free.



                          It contains the other set as a subset, but topologies aren't closed under subsets, so that doesn't mean anything. It can be written as $bigcap_{i in I} pi_i^{-1}[U_i]$, but that will be an infinite intersection, and topologies are only guaranteed to be closed under finite intersections.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Nov 19 at 22:23

























                          answered Nov 19 at 22:05









                          Henno Brandsma

                          102k345109




                          102k345109






























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