Set of subsets containing individual elements












0














Consider the set $S={a,b,c}$. I am trying to formalize a general approach to fragmenting the set $S$, s.t. a fragmentation function $F$ is a function that maps from $S$ to $2^S$.



The granularity, of course depends on the specific function, e.g. the function $F_C(S)={forall t|tin S}$ is very coarse-granular that returns the set {{a,b,c}}.



However, how do I formalize a fragmentation function that returns the set {{a},{b},{c}}? The only idea I have for it is $F_F={forall{t}|tin S}$, however it just seems wrong. Is the function $F_C$ even correctly formulated?



Edit: My question is generally this: How do I formalize a function $F_F(S)$ that is injective and maps $a$ to ${a}$, $b$ to ${b}$ etc?



Thanks! - Christian










share|cite|improve this question
























  • What's a fragmentation function? Specifically, what properties do you want your function $F$ to have?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:57










  • @lulu - Essentially a function that creates a set of fragments, where a fragment $f$ is a subset of $S$, $fsubseteq S$, that is $F: Srightarrow 2^S$.
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:59










  • Not sure that clarifies anything. A function from $S$ to $2^S$ can only have at most three values in its range. I guess you can pick whatever three subsets you like. Are you sure you don't want the domain of $F$ to be the power set of $S$?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:00












  • @lulu I thought the power set $S$ was $2^S$? But anyways, yes that is what I want
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:02










  • So, you want a function from the power set of $S$ to $2^S$? What properties would you like that function to have?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:03
















0














Consider the set $S={a,b,c}$. I am trying to formalize a general approach to fragmenting the set $S$, s.t. a fragmentation function $F$ is a function that maps from $S$ to $2^S$.



The granularity, of course depends on the specific function, e.g. the function $F_C(S)={forall t|tin S}$ is very coarse-granular that returns the set {{a,b,c}}.



However, how do I formalize a fragmentation function that returns the set {{a},{b},{c}}? The only idea I have for it is $F_F={forall{t}|tin S}$, however it just seems wrong. Is the function $F_C$ even correctly formulated?



Edit: My question is generally this: How do I formalize a function $F_F(S)$ that is injective and maps $a$ to ${a}$, $b$ to ${b}$ etc?



Thanks! - Christian










share|cite|improve this question
























  • What's a fragmentation function? Specifically, what properties do you want your function $F$ to have?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:57










  • @lulu - Essentially a function that creates a set of fragments, where a fragment $f$ is a subset of $S$, $fsubseteq S$, that is $F: Srightarrow 2^S$.
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:59










  • Not sure that clarifies anything. A function from $S$ to $2^S$ can only have at most three values in its range. I guess you can pick whatever three subsets you like. Are you sure you don't want the domain of $F$ to be the power set of $S$?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:00












  • @lulu I thought the power set $S$ was $2^S$? But anyways, yes that is what I want
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:02










  • So, you want a function from the power set of $S$ to $2^S$? What properties would you like that function to have?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:03














0












0








0







Consider the set $S={a,b,c}$. I am trying to formalize a general approach to fragmenting the set $S$, s.t. a fragmentation function $F$ is a function that maps from $S$ to $2^S$.



The granularity, of course depends on the specific function, e.g. the function $F_C(S)={forall t|tin S}$ is very coarse-granular that returns the set {{a,b,c}}.



However, how do I formalize a fragmentation function that returns the set {{a},{b},{c}}? The only idea I have for it is $F_F={forall{t}|tin S}$, however it just seems wrong. Is the function $F_C$ even correctly formulated?



Edit: My question is generally this: How do I formalize a function $F_F(S)$ that is injective and maps $a$ to ${a}$, $b$ to ${b}$ etc?



Thanks! - Christian










share|cite|improve this question















Consider the set $S={a,b,c}$. I am trying to formalize a general approach to fragmenting the set $S$, s.t. a fragmentation function $F$ is a function that maps from $S$ to $2^S$.



The granularity, of course depends on the specific function, e.g. the function $F_C(S)={forall t|tin S}$ is very coarse-granular that returns the set {{a,b,c}}.



However, how do I formalize a fragmentation function that returns the set {{a},{b},{c}}? The only idea I have for it is $F_F={forall{t}|tin S}$, however it just seems wrong. Is the function $F_C$ even correctly formulated?



Edit: My question is generally this: How do I formalize a function $F_F(S)$ that is injective and maps $a$ to ${a}$, $b$ to ${b}$ etc?



Thanks! - Christian







elementary-set-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 29 '18 at 13:39







Chraebe

















asked Nov 29 '18 at 12:47









ChraebeChraebe

1032




1032












  • What's a fragmentation function? Specifically, what properties do you want your function $F$ to have?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:57










  • @lulu - Essentially a function that creates a set of fragments, where a fragment $f$ is a subset of $S$, $fsubseteq S$, that is $F: Srightarrow 2^S$.
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:59










  • Not sure that clarifies anything. A function from $S$ to $2^S$ can only have at most three values in its range. I guess you can pick whatever three subsets you like. Are you sure you don't want the domain of $F$ to be the power set of $S$?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:00












  • @lulu I thought the power set $S$ was $2^S$? But anyways, yes that is what I want
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:02










  • So, you want a function from the power set of $S$ to $2^S$? What properties would you like that function to have?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:03


















  • What's a fragmentation function? Specifically, what properties do you want your function $F$ to have?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:57










  • @lulu - Essentially a function that creates a set of fragments, where a fragment $f$ is a subset of $S$, $fsubseteq S$, that is $F: Srightarrow 2^S$.
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 12:59










  • Not sure that clarifies anything. A function from $S$ to $2^S$ can only have at most three values in its range. I guess you can pick whatever three subsets you like. Are you sure you don't want the domain of $F$ to be the power set of $S$?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:00












  • @lulu I thought the power set $S$ was $2^S$? But anyways, yes that is what I want
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:02










  • So, you want a function from the power set of $S$ to $2^S$? What properties would you like that function to have?
    – lulu
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:03
















What's a fragmentation function? Specifically, what properties do you want your function $F$ to have?
– lulu
Nov 29 '18 at 12:57




What's a fragmentation function? Specifically, what properties do you want your function $F$ to have?
– lulu
Nov 29 '18 at 12:57












@lulu - Essentially a function that creates a set of fragments, where a fragment $f$ is a subset of $S$, $fsubseteq S$, that is $F: Srightarrow 2^S$.
– Chraebe
Nov 29 '18 at 12:59




@lulu - Essentially a function that creates a set of fragments, where a fragment $f$ is a subset of $S$, $fsubseteq S$, that is $F: Srightarrow 2^S$.
– Chraebe
Nov 29 '18 at 12:59












Not sure that clarifies anything. A function from $S$ to $2^S$ can only have at most three values in its range. I guess you can pick whatever three subsets you like. Are you sure you don't want the domain of $F$ to be the power set of $S$?
– lulu
Nov 29 '18 at 13:00






Not sure that clarifies anything. A function from $S$ to $2^S$ can only have at most three values in its range. I guess you can pick whatever three subsets you like. Are you sure you don't want the domain of $F$ to be the power set of $S$?
– lulu
Nov 29 '18 at 13:00














@lulu I thought the power set $S$ was $2^S$? But anyways, yes that is what I want
– Chraebe
Nov 29 '18 at 13:02




@lulu I thought the power set $S$ was $2^S$? But anyways, yes that is what I want
– Chraebe
Nov 29 '18 at 13:02












So, you want a function from the power set of $S$ to $2^S$? What properties would you like that function to have?
– lulu
Nov 29 '18 at 13:03




So, you want a function from the power set of $S$ to $2^S$? What properties would you like that function to have?
– lulu
Nov 29 '18 at 13:03










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0














If $F:Stowp(S)$ is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$ then the graph of $F$ can be recognized as the set (of ordered pairs):$${langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$$



However this function is only bijective if $S$ is empty or is a singleton.



It is injective though, and to make it bijective its codomain must be restricted to its image which is the set ${{x}mid xin S}$.



Then we are dealing with $F:Sto{{x}mid xin S}$ prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$.



This function has the same graph as the original one, but if concepts like "bijective" are at stake then functions cannot be identified with their graphs only.





I am not sure about my own understanding of the question. Does this help?






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you. I meant that the function $F$ is injective, not bijective (sorry about that). Is ${langle x,{x}rangle | xin S}$ then the correct formalization of $F$ given that any $x$ is mapped to ${x}$?
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:45












  • In set theory a function $f$ is a set of ordered pairs that has a special property: if $langle x,yrangle,langle x,zranglein f$ then $y=z$. That is the case for $F={langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$. So it is a function and it is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$. I don't know what you mean exactly with "formalization".
    – drhab
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:52










  • I see, I think I just misunderstood the notation of defining functions :). Another question - is the function $F_C={langle x,{S}rangle}$ then correct notation for a function where all elements in $S$ maps to ${S}$?
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 14:01












  • No, it should be ${langle x,{S}ranglemid xin S}$.
    – drhab
    Nov 29 '18 at 14:07





















0














If this is what you ask: My question is generally this: How do I formalize a function $F_F(S)$ that is injective and maps $a$ to ${a}$, $b$ to ${b}$ etc?



Let: $$S={a,b,c}$$



(Aside: the above explication of $S$ is useless, since the following set and function will hold for any set.)



And, $$A={{x}| xin S}$$ then,



$$F_F:Arightarrow S$$
$$F_F={(x,{x})|xin S land {x}in A;x=x}$$



Or to avoid ambiguity,



$$A={{y}| yin S}$$



$$F_F={(x,{y})|xin S land {y}in A;x=y}$$



Notice:
$$x_1rightarrow y_1$$
$$x_2rightarrow y_2$$
$$x_nrightarrow y_n$$



Therefore,



$$(forall xin S (exists yin A) ni f(x)={y})$$
$$(f(x_1)={y_1} land f(x_2)={y_1})implies x_1=x_2$$



Meaning the function is bijective.






share|cite|improve this answer























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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0














    If $F:Stowp(S)$ is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$ then the graph of $F$ can be recognized as the set (of ordered pairs):$${langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$$



    However this function is only bijective if $S$ is empty or is a singleton.



    It is injective though, and to make it bijective its codomain must be restricted to its image which is the set ${{x}mid xin S}$.



    Then we are dealing with $F:Sto{{x}mid xin S}$ prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$.



    This function has the same graph as the original one, but if concepts like "bijective" are at stake then functions cannot be identified with their graphs only.





    I am not sure about my own understanding of the question. Does this help?






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thank you. I meant that the function $F$ is injective, not bijective (sorry about that). Is ${langle x,{x}rangle | xin S}$ then the correct formalization of $F$ given that any $x$ is mapped to ${x}$?
      – Chraebe
      Nov 29 '18 at 13:45












    • In set theory a function $f$ is a set of ordered pairs that has a special property: if $langle x,yrangle,langle x,zranglein f$ then $y=z$. That is the case for $F={langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$. So it is a function and it is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$. I don't know what you mean exactly with "formalization".
      – drhab
      Nov 29 '18 at 13:52










    • I see, I think I just misunderstood the notation of defining functions :). Another question - is the function $F_C={langle x,{S}rangle}$ then correct notation for a function where all elements in $S$ maps to ${S}$?
      – Chraebe
      Nov 29 '18 at 14:01












    • No, it should be ${langle x,{S}ranglemid xin S}$.
      – drhab
      Nov 29 '18 at 14:07


















    0














    If $F:Stowp(S)$ is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$ then the graph of $F$ can be recognized as the set (of ordered pairs):$${langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$$



    However this function is only bijective if $S$ is empty or is a singleton.



    It is injective though, and to make it bijective its codomain must be restricted to its image which is the set ${{x}mid xin S}$.



    Then we are dealing with $F:Sto{{x}mid xin S}$ prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$.



    This function has the same graph as the original one, but if concepts like "bijective" are at stake then functions cannot be identified with their graphs only.





    I am not sure about my own understanding of the question. Does this help?






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thank you. I meant that the function $F$ is injective, not bijective (sorry about that). Is ${langle x,{x}rangle | xin S}$ then the correct formalization of $F$ given that any $x$ is mapped to ${x}$?
      – Chraebe
      Nov 29 '18 at 13:45












    • In set theory a function $f$ is a set of ordered pairs that has a special property: if $langle x,yrangle,langle x,zranglein f$ then $y=z$. That is the case for $F={langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$. So it is a function and it is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$. I don't know what you mean exactly with "formalization".
      – drhab
      Nov 29 '18 at 13:52










    • I see, I think I just misunderstood the notation of defining functions :). Another question - is the function $F_C={langle x,{S}rangle}$ then correct notation for a function where all elements in $S$ maps to ${S}$?
      – Chraebe
      Nov 29 '18 at 14:01












    • No, it should be ${langle x,{S}ranglemid xin S}$.
      – drhab
      Nov 29 '18 at 14:07
















    0












    0








    0






    If $F:Stowp(S)$ is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$ then the graph of $F$ can be recognized as the set (of ordered pairs):$${langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$$



    However this function is only bijective if $S$ is empty or is a singleton.



    It is injective though, and to make it bijective its codomain must be restricted to its image which is the set ${{x}mid xin S}$.



    Then we are dealing with $F:Sto{{x}mid xin S}$ prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$.



    This function has the same graph as the original one, but if concepts like "bijective" are at stake then functions cannot be identified with their graphs only.





    I am not sure about my own understanding of the question. Does this help?






    share|cite|improve this answer












    If $F:Stowp(S)$ is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$ then the graph of $F$ can be recognized as the set (of ordered pairs):$${langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$$



    However this function is only bijective if $S$ is empty or is a singleton.



    It is injective though, and to make it bijective its codomain must be restricted to its image which is the set ${{x}mid xin S}$.



    Then we are dealing with $F:Sto{{x}mid xin S}$ prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$.



    This function has the same graph as the original one, but if concepts like "bijective" are at stake then functions cannot be identified with their graphs only.





    I am not sure about my own understanding of the question. Does this help?







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Nov 29 '18 at 13:29









    drhabdrhab

    98.5k544129




    98.5k544129












    • Thank you. I meant that the function $F$ is injective, not bijective (sorry about that). Is ${langle x,{x}rangle | xin S}$ then the correct formalization of $F$ given that any $x$ is mapped to ${x}$?
      – Chraebe
      Nov 29 '18 at 13:45












    • In set theory a function $f$ is a set of ordered pairs that has a special property: if $langle x,yrangle,langle x,zranglein f$ then $y=z$. That is the case for $F={langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$. So it is a function and it is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$. I don't know what you mean exactly with "formalization".
      – drhab
      Nov 29 '18 at 13:52










    • I see, I think I just misunderstood the notation of defining functions :). Another question - is the function $F_C={langle x,{S}rangle}$ then correct notation for a function where all elements in $S$ maps to ${S}$?
      – Chraebe
      Nov 29 '18 at 14:01












    • No, it should be ${langle x,{S}ranglemid xin S}$.
      – drhab
      Nov 29 '18 at 14:07




















    • Thank you. I meant that the function $F$ is injective, not bijective (sorry about that). Is ${langle x,{x}rangle | xin S}$ then the correct formalization of $F$ given that any $x$ is mapped to ${x}$?
      – Chraebe
      Nov 29 '18 at 13:45












    • In set theory a function $f$ is a set of ordered pairs that has a special property: if $langle x,yrangle,langle x,zranglein f$ then $y=z$. That is the case for $F={langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$. So it is a function and it is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$. I don't know what you mean exactly with "formalization".
      – drhab
      Nov 29 '18 at 13:52










    • I see, I think I just misunderstood the notation of defining functions :). Another question - is the function $F_C={langle x,{S}rangle}$ then correct notation for a function where all elements in $S$ maps to ${S}$?
      – Chraebe
      Nov 29 '18 at 14:01












    • No, it should be ${langle x,{S}ranglemid xin S}$.
      – drhab
      Nov 29 '18 at 14:07


















    Thank you. I meant that the function $F$ is injective, not bijective (sorry about that). Is ${langle x,{x}rangle | xin S}$ then the correct formalization of $F$ given that any $x$ is mapped to ${x}$?
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:45






    Thank you. I meant that the function $F$ is injective, not bijective (sorry about that). Is ${langle x,{x}rangle | xin S}$ then the correct formalization of $F$ given that any $x$ is mapped to ${x}$?
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:45














    In set theory a function $f$ is a set of ordered pairs that has a special property: if $langle x,yrangle,langle x,zranglein f$ then $y=z$. That is the case for $F={langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$. So it is a function and it is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$. I don't know what you mean exactly with "formalization".
    – drhab
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:52




    In set theory a function $f$ is a set of ordered pairs that has a special property: if $langle x,yrangle,langle x,zranglein f$ then $y=z$. That is the case for $F={langle x,{x}ranglemid xin S}$. So it is a function and it is prescribed by $xmapsto{x}$. I don't know what you mean exactly with "formalization".
    – drhab
    Nov 29 '18 at 13:52












    I see, I think I just misunderstood the notation of defining functions :). Another question - is the function $F_C={langle x,{S}rangle}$ then correct notation for a function where all elements in $S$ maps to ${S}$?
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 14:01






    I see, I think I just misunderstood the notation of defining functions :). Another question - is the function $F_C={langle x,{S}rangle}$ then correct notation for a function where all elements in $S$ maps to ${S}$?
    – Chraebe
    Nov 29 '18 at 14:01














    No, it should be ${langle x,{S}ranglemid xin S}$.
    – drhab
    Nov 29 '18 at 14:07






    No, it should be ${langle x,{S}ranglemid xin S}$.
    – drhab
    Nov 29 '18 at 14:07













    0














    If this is what you ask: My question is generally this: How do I formalize a function $F_F(S)$ that is injective and maps $a$ to ${a}$, $b$ to ${b}$ etc?



    Let: $$S={a,b,c}$$



    (Aside: the above explication of $S$ is useless, since the following set and function will hold for any set.)



    And, $$A={{x}| xin S}$$ then,



    $$F_F:Arightarrow S$$
    $$F_F={(x,{x})|xin S land {x}in A;x=x}$$



    Or to avoid ambiguity,



    $$A={{y}| yin S}$$



    $$F_F={(x,{y})|xin S land {y}in A;x=y}$$



    Notice:
    $$x_1rightarrow y_1$$
    $$x_2rightarrow y_2$$
    $$x_nrightarrow y_n$$



    Therefore,



    $$(forall xin S (exists yin A) ni f(x)={y})$$
    $$(f(x_1)={y_1} land f(x_2)={y_1})implies x_1=x_2$$



    Meaning the function is bijective.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      0














      If this is what you ask: My question is generally this: How do I formalize a function $F_F(S)$ that is injective and maps $a$ to ${a}$, $b$ to ${b}$ etc?



      Let: $$S={a,b,c}$$



      (Aside: the above explication of $S$ is useless, since the following set and function will hold for any set.)



      And, $$A={{x}| xin S}$$ then,



      $$F_F:Arightarrow S$$
      $$F_F={(x,{x})|xin S land {x}in A;x=x}$$



      Or to avoid ambiguity,



      $$A={{y}| yin S}$$



      $$F_F={(x,{y})|xin S land {y}in A;x=y}$$



      Notice:
      $$x_1rightarrow y_1$$
      $$x_2rightarrow y_2$$
      $$x_nrightarrow y_n$$



      Therefore,



      $$(forall xin S (exists yin A) ni f(x)={y})$$
      $$(f(x_1)={y_1} land f(x_2)={y_1})implies x_1=x_2$$



      Meaning the function is bijective.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        0












        0








        0






        If this is what you ask: My question is generally this: How do I formalize a function $F_F(S)$ that is injective and maps $a$ to ${a}$, $b$ to ${b}$ etc?



        Let: $$S={a,b,c}$$



        (Aside: the above explication of $S$ is useless, since the following set and function will hold for any set.)



        And, $$A={{x}| xin S}$$ then,



        $$F_F:Arightarrow S$$
        $$F_F={(x,{x})|xin S land {x}in A;x=x}$$



        Or to avoid ambiguity,



        $$A={{y}| yin S}$$



        $$F_F={(x,{y})|xin S land {y}in A;x=y}$$



        Notice:
        $$x_1rightarrow y_1$$
        $$x_2rightarrow y_2$$
        $$x_nrightarrow y_n$$



        Therefore,



        $$(forall xin S (exists yin A) ni f(x)={y})$$
        $$(f(x_1)={y_1} land f(x_2)={y_1})implies x_1=x_2$$



        Meaning the function is bijective.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        If this is what you ask: My question is generally this: How do I formalize a function $F_F(S)$ that is injective and maps $a$ to ${a}$, $b$ to ${b}$ etc?



        Let: $$S={a,b,c}$$



        (Aside: the above explication of $S$ is useless, since the following set and function will hold for any set.)



        And, $$A={{x}| xin S}$$ then,



        $$F_F:Arightarrow S$$
        $$F_F={(x,{x})|xin S land {x}in A;x=x}$$



        Or to avoid ambiguity,



        $$A={{y}| yin S}$$



        $$F_F={(x,{y})|xin S land {y}in A;x=y}$$



        Notice:
        $$x_1rightarrow y_1$$
        $$x_2rightarrow y_2$$
        $$x_nrightarrow y_n$$



        Therefore,



        $$(forall xin S (exists yin A) ni f(x)={y})$$
        $$(f(x_1)={y_1} land f(x_2)={y_1})implies x_1=x_2$$



        Meaning the function is bijective.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 29 '18 at 14:07

























        answered Nov 29 '18 at 13:51









        Bertrand Wittgenstein's GhostBertrand Wittgenstein's Ghost

        354114




        354114






























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