$X_1$ be an exponential random variable with mean $1$ and $X_2$ be a gamma random variable with mean $1$ and...












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Let $X_1$ be an exponential random variable with mean $1$ and $X_2$ be a gamma random variable with mean $2$ and variance $2$. If $X_1$ and $X_2$ are Independent random variable then $P(X_1<X_2)$



My input



$Exp(a)=ae^{-ax} ; G(a,lambda)=dfrac{a^{lambda}}{Gamma{lambda} }e^{ax}x^{lambda-1} $



$X_1sim Exp(1)=e^{-x}implies G(1,1)$



Mean $ =dfrac{lambda}{a}=2 implies lambda=2a $



Variance = $dfrac{lambda}{a^2}=dfrac{2a}{a^2}=2 implies a=1,lambda=2$



$X_2sim G(1,2)$



$P(X_2-X_1<0)$



I am trying to find out distribution of $X_2-X_1$ I tried to subtract the parameter($lambda_1,lambda_2$) but the property of MGF works in addition only.
Secondly I tried using Gamma Poisson relationship but my Poisson parameter includes $X_2$ so I am out of option I need a hint or something.










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you fix $X_2$, can you find $P(X_1<X_2)$?
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:26










  • $begingroup$
    But won't it include $X_2$ how will I get final result ?
    $endgroup$
    – Daman deep
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:27






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    If you have a formula for $P(X_1<X_2)$ for fixed $X_2$, you can then calculate $int P(X_1<X_2)f_G(X_2)mbox{d}X_2$ where $f_G$ is the probability density function of the gamma distribution. This method is known as divide and conquer.
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:29


















0












$begingroup$


Let $X_1$ be an exponential random variable with mean $1$ and $X_2$ be a gamma random variable with mean $2$ and variance $2$. If $X_1$ and $X_2$ are Independent random variable then $P(X_1<X_2)$



My input



$Exp(a)=ae^{-ax} ; G(a,lambda)=dfrac{a^{lambda}}{Gamma{lambda} }e^{ax}x^{lambda-1} $



$X_1sim Exp(1)=e^{-x}implies G(1,1)$



Mean $ =dfrac{lambda}{a}=2 implies lambda=2a $



Variance = $dfrac{lambda}{a^2}=dfrac{2a}{a^2}=2 implies a=1,lambda=2$



$X_2sim G(1,2)$



$P(X_2-X_1<0)$



I am trying to find out distribution of $X_2-X_1$ I tried to subtract the parameter($lambda_1,lambda_2$) but the property of MGF works in addition only.
Secondly I tried using Gamma Poisson relationship but my Poisson parameter includes $X_2$ so I am out of option I need a hint or something.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you fix $X_2$, can you find $P(X_1<X_2)$?
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:26










  • $begingroup$
    But won't it include $X_2$ how will I get final result ?
    $endgroup$
    – Daman deep
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:27






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    If you have a formula for $P(X_1<X_2)$ for fixed $X_2$, you can then calculate $int P(X_1<X_2)f_G(X_2)mbox{d}X_2$ where $f_G$ is the probability density function of the gamma distribution. This method is known as divide and conquer.
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:29
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $X_1$ be an exponential random variable with mean $1$ and $X_2$ be a gamma random variable with mean $2$ and variance $2$. If $X_1$ and $X_2$ are Independent random variable then $P(X_1<X_2)$



My input



$Exp(a)=ae^{-ax} ; G(a,lambda)=dfrac{a^{lambda}}{Gamma{lambda} }e^{ax}x^{lambda-1} $



$X_1sim Exp(1)=e^{-x}implies G(1,1)$



Mean $ =dfrac{lambda}{a}=2 implies lambda=2a $



Variance = $dfrac{lambda}{a^2}=dfrac{2a}{a^2}=2 implies a=1,lambda=2$



$X_2sim G(1,2)$



$P(X_2-X_1<0)$



I am trying to find out distribution of $X_2-X_1$ I tried to subtract the parameter($lambda_1,lambda_2$) but the property of MGF works in addition only.
Secondly I tried using Gamma Poisson relationship but my Poisson parameter includes $X_2$ so I am out of option I need a hint or something.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $X_1$ be an exponential random variable with mean $1$ and $X_2$ be a gamma random variable with mean $2$ and variance $2$. If $X_1$ and $X_2$ are Independent random variable then $P(X_1<X_2)$



My input



$Exp(a)=ae^{-ax} ; G(a,lambda)=dfrac{a^{lambda}}{Gamma{lambda} }e^{ax}x^{lambda-1} $



$X_1sim Exp(1)=e^{-x}implies G(1,1)$



Mean $ =dfrac{lambda}{a}=2 implies lambda=2a $



Variance = $dfrac{lambda}{a^2}=dfrac{2a}{a^2}=2 implies a=1,lambda=2$



$X_2sim G(1,2)$



$P(X_2-X_1<0)$



I am trying to find out distribution of $X_2-X_1$ I tried to subtract the parameter($lambda_1,lambda_2$) but the property of MGF works in addition only.
Secondly I tried using Gamma Poisson relationship but my Poisson parameter includes $X_2$ so I am out of option I need a hint or something.







probability statistics probability-distributions






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asked Dec 13 '18 at 14:21









Daman deepDaman deep

756418




756418








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you fix $X_2$, can you find $P(X_1<X_2)$?
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:26










  • $begingroup$
    But won't it include $X_2$ how will I get final result ?
    $endgroup$
    – Daman deep
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:27






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    If you have a formula for $P(X_1<X_2)$ for fixed $X_2$, you can then calculate $int P(X_1<X_2)f_G(X_2)mbox{d}X_2$ where $f_G$ is the probability density function of the gamma distribution. This method is known as divide and conquer.
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:29
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you fix $X_2$, can you find $P(X_1<X_2)$?
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:26










  • $begingroup$
    But won't it include $X_2$ how will I get final result ?
    $endgroup$
    – Daman deep
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:27






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    If you have a formula for $P(X_1<X_2)$ for fixed $X_2$, you can then calculate $int P(X_1<X_2)f_G(X_2)mbox{d}X_2$ where $f_G$ is the probability density function of the gamma distribution. This method is known as divide and conquer.
    $endgroup$
    – SmileyCraft
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:29










1




1




$begingroup$
If you fix $X_2$, can you find $P(X_1<X_2)$?
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Dec 13 '18 at 14:26




$begingroup$
If you fix $X_2$, can you find $P(X_1<X_2)$?
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Dec 13 '18 at 14:26












$begingroup$
But won't it include $X_2$ how will I get final result ?
$endgroup$
– Daman deep
Dec 13 '18 at 14:27




$begingroup$
But won't it include $X_2$ how will I get final result ?
$endgroup$
– Daman deep
Dec 13 '18 at 14:27




3




3




$begingroup$
If you have a formula for $P(X_1<X_2)$ for fixed $X_2$, you can then calculate $int P(X_1<X_2)f_G(X_2)mbox{d}X_2$ where $f_G$ is the probability density function of the gamma distribution. This method is known as divide and conquer.
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Dec 13 '18 at 14:29






$begingroup$
If you have a formula for $P(X_1<X_2)$ for fixed $X_2$, you can then calculate $int P(X_1<X_2)f_G(X_2)mbox{d}X_2$ where $f_G$ is the probability density function of the gamma distribution. This method is known as divide and conquer.
$endgroup$
– SmileyCraft
Dec 13 '18 at 14:29












1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Smiley is right.



Go for finding e.g.:$$P(X_1<X_2)=1-P(X_1geq X_2)=1-int_0^{infty} P(X_1geq x)f_{X_2}(x)dx=1-int_0^{infty} e^{-x}f_{X_2}(x)dx$$



(and leave $X_2-X_1$ for what it is!)






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    active

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    1












    $begingroup$

    Smiley is right.



    Go for finding e.g.:$$P(X_1<X_2)=1-P(X_1geq X_2)=1-int_0^{infty} P(X_1geq x)f_{X_2}(x)dx=1-int_0^{infty} e^{-x}f_{X_2}(x)dx$$



    (and leave $X_2-X_1$ for what it is!)






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Smiley is right.



      Go for finding e.g.:$$P(X_1<X_2)=1-P(X_1geq X_2)=1-int_0^{infty} P(X_1geq x)f_{X_2}(x)dx=1-int_0^{infty} e^{-x}f_{X_2}(x)dx$$



      (and leave $X_2-X_1$ for what it is!)






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Smiley is right.



        Go for finding e.g.:$$P(X_1<X_2)=1-P(X_1geq X_2)=1-int_0^{infty} P(X_1geq x)f_{X_2}(x)dx=1-int_0^{infty} e^{-x}f_{X_2}(x)dx$$



        (and leave $X_2-X_1$ for what it is!)






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Smiley is right.



        Go for finding e.g.:$$P(X_1<X_2)=1-P(X_1geq X_2)=1-int_0^{infty} P(X_1geq x)f_{X_2}(x)dx=1-int_0^{infty} e^{-x}f_{X_2}(x)dx$$



        (and leave $X_2-X_1$ for what it is!)







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 13 '18 at 14:42









        drhabdrhab

        101k544130




        101k544130






























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