Showing that the Zariski topology with polynomials in $Q[x_1,…,x_n]$ over $Bbb R^n$ is $T_0$











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I am considering the Zariski topology over $Q[x_1,...,x_n$] as a topology over $Bbb R^n$, so that a set is Zariski-closed if there exists a set of polynomials $I$ such that $V= {r in Bbb R^n | f(r)=0 $ for all $f in I }$



First off a topological space is $T_0$ if for distinct $x,y$ we have an open set that contains one and not the other, which I believe is equivalent to having a closed set that does not contain one and not the other.



Next I consider three cases
1) If $x,y$ have rational components, then I just take a polynomial $f(x)=t-x_i$ for some $i$ where $x_i,y_i$ are different.



2) If one of $x,y$ has all rational components and the other isn't , then again I take $f(x)=t-x_i$ for some $i$ where $x_i,y_i$ are different.



3) If both $x,y$ have irrational components, I am stuck. I would need to find a polynomial that is zero for $x$ but not $y$ (or vice versa) which is tripping me up. Any hints appreciated.



Edited to reflect that this is over $Bbb R_n$










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  • @SaucyO'Path yes I know, I just phrased it badly, will edit.
    – IntegrateThis
    Nov 17 at 22:35

















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I am considering the Zariski topology over $Q[x_1,...,x_n$] as a topology over $Bbb R^n$, so that a set is Zariski-closed if there exists a set of polynomials $I$ such that $V= {r in Bbb R^n | f(r)=0 $ for all $f in I }$



First off a topological space is $T_0$ if for distinct $x,y$ we have an open set that contains one and not the other, which I believe is equivalent to having a closed set that does not contain one and not the other.



Next I consider three cases
1) If $x,y$ have rational components, then I just take a polynomial $f(x)=t-x_i$ for some $i$ where $x_i,y_i$ are different.



2) If one of $x,y$ has all rational components and the other isn't , then again I take $f(x)=t-x_i$ for some $i$ where $x_i,y_i$ are different.



3) If both $x,y$ have irrational components, I am stuck. I would need to find a polynomial that is zero for $x$ but not $y$ (or vice versa) which is tripping me up. Any hints appreciated.



Edited to reflect that this is over $Bbb R_n$










share|cite|improve this question
























  • @SaucyO'Path yes I know, I just phrased it badly, will edit.
    – IntegrateThis
    Nov 17 at 22:35















up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I am considering the Zariski topology over $Q[x_1,...,x_n$] as a topology over $Bbb R^n$, so that a set is Zariski-closed if there exists a set of polynomials $I$ such that $V= {r in Bbb R^n | f(r)=0 $ for all $f in I }$



First off a topological space is $T_0$ if for distinct $x,y$ we have an open set that contains one and not the other, which I believe is equivalent to having a closed set that does not contain one and not the other.



Next I consider three cases
1) If $x,y$ have rational components, then I just take a polynomial $f(x)=t-x_i$ for some $i$ where $x_i,y_i$ are different.



2) If one of $x,y$ has all rational components and the other isn't , then again I take $f(x)=t-x_i$ for some $i$ where $x_i,y_i$ are different.



3) If both $x,y$ have irrational components, I am stuck. I would need to find a polynomial that is zero for $x$ but not $y$ (or vice versa) which is tripping me up. Any hints appreciated.



Edited to reflect that this is over $Bbb R_n$










share|cite|improve this question















I am considering the Zariski topology over $Q[x_1,...,x_n$] as a topology over $Bbb R^n$, so that a set is Zariski-closed if there exists a set of polynomials $I$ such that $V= {r in Bbb R^n | f(r)=0 $ for all $f in I }$



First off a topological space is $T_0$ if for distinct $x,y$ we have an open set that contains one and not the other, which I believe is equivalent to having a closed set that does not contain one and not the other.



Next I consider three cases
1) If $x,y$ have rational components, then I just take a polynomial $f(x)=t-x_i$ for some $i$ where $x_i,y_i$ are different.



2) If one of $x,y$ has all rational components and the other isn't , then again I take $f(x)=t-x_i$ for some $i$ where $x_i,y_i$ are different.



3) If both $x,y$ have irrational components, I am stuck. I would need to find a polynomial that is zero for $x$ but not $y$ (or vice versa) which is tripping me up. Any hints appreciated.



Edited to reflect that this is over $Bbb R_n$







general-topology polynomials






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edited Nov 17 at 22:43

























asked Nov 17 at 22:20









IntegrateThis

1,6971717




1,6971717












  • @SaucyO'Path yes I know, I just phrased it badly, will edit.
    – IntegrateThis
    Nov 17 at 22:35




















  • @SaucyO'Path yes I know, I just phrased it badly, will edit.
    – IntegrateThis
    Nov 17 at 22:35


















@SaucyO'Path yes I know, I just phrased it badly, will edit.
– IntegrateThis
Nov 17 at 22:35






@SaucyO'Path yes I know, I just phrased it badly, will edit.
– IntegrateThis
Nov 17 at 22:35












1 Answer
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up vote
3
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accepted










This is not true. In fact, if $(a_1,cdots,a_n)$ is a point such that its coordinates are algebraically independent over $Bbb Q$, then by definition the only closed set that contains it is the whole $Bbb R^n$. So, any two such points are topologically indistinguishable.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Right so in $n=1$ no polynomial (let alone with rational coefficients) would be zero for $pi$ or $e$, so there can't be an open set containing one but not the other?
    – IntegrateThis
    Nov 17 at 22:49






  • 1




    @IntegrateThis There is no polynomial with rational coefficients. With real coefficients there are plenty, namely $X-pi$ and such.
    – Saucy O'Path
    Nov 17 at 22:50













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1 Answer
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active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
3
down vote



accepted










This is not true. In fact, if $(a_1,cdots,a_n)$ is a point such that its coordinates are algebraically independent over $Bbb Q$, then by definition the only closed set that contains it is the whole $Bbb R^n$. So, any two such points are topologically indistinguishable.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Right so in $n=1$ no polynomial (let alone with rational coefficients) would be zero for $pi$ or $e$, so there can't be an open set containing one but not the other?
    – IntegrateThis
    Nov 17 at 22:49






  • 1




    @IntegrateThis There is no polynomial with rational coefficients. With real coefficients there are plenty, namely $X-pi$ and such.
    – Saucy O'Path
    Nov 17 at 22:50

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










This is not true. In fact, if $(a_1,cdots,a_n)$ is a point such that its coordinates are algebraically independent over $Bbb Q$, then by definition the only closed set that contains it is the whole $Bbb R^n$. So, any two such points are topologically indistinguishable.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Right so in $n=1$ no polynomial (let alone with rational coefficients) would be zero for $pi$ or $e$, so there can't be an open set containing one but not the other?
    – IntegrateThis
    Nov 17 at 22:49






  • 1




    @IntegrateThis There is no polynomial with rational coefficients. With real coefficients there are plenty, namely $X-pi$ and such.
    – Saucy O'Path
    Nov 17 at 22:50















up vote
3
down vote



accepted







up vote
3
down vote



accepted






This is not true. In fact, if $(a_1,cdots,a_n)$ is a point such that its coordinates are algebraically independent over $Bbb Q$, then by definition the only closed set that contains it is the whole $Bbb R^n$. So, any two such points are topologically indistinguishable.






share|cite|improve this answer












This is not true. In fact, if $(a_1,cdots,a_n)$ is a point such that its coordinates are algebraically independent over $Bbb Q$, then by definition the only closed set that contains it is the whole $Bbb R^n$. So, any two such points are topologically indistinguishable.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 17 at 22:45









Saucy O'Path

5,5911526




5,5911526












  • Right so in $n=1$ no polynomial (let alone with rational coefficients) would be zero for $pi$ or $e$, so there can't be an open set containing one but not the other?
    – IntegrateThis
    Nov 17 at 22:49






  • 1




    @IntegrateThis There is no polynomial with rational coefficients. With real coefficients there are plenty, namely $X-pi$ and such.
    – Saucy O'Path
    Nov 17 at 22:50




















  • Right so in $n=1$ no polynomial (let alone with rational coefficients) would be zero for $pi$ or $e$, so there can't be an open set containing one but not the other?
    – IntegrateThis
    Nov 17 at 22:49






  • 1




    @IntegrateThis There is no polynomial with rational coefficients. With real coefficients there are plenty, namely $X-pi$ and such.
    – Saucy O'Path
    Nov 17 at 22:50


















Right so in $n=1$ no polynomial (let alone with rational coefficients) would be zero for $pi$ or $e$, so there can't be an open set containing one but not the other?
– IntegrateThis
Nov 17 at 22:49




Right so in $n=1$ no polynomial (let alone with rational coefficients) would be zero for $pi$ or $e$, so there can't be an open set containing one but not the other?
– IntegrateThis
Nov 17 at 22:49




1




1




@IntegrateThis There is no polynomial with rational coefficients. With real coefficients there are plenty, namely $X-pi$ and such.
– Saucy O'Path
Nov 17 at 22:50






@IntegrateThis There is no polynomial with rational coefficients. With real coefficients there are plenty, namely $X-pi$ and such.
– Saucy O'Path
Nov 17 at 22:50




















 

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