Find $A$ given $A^2$ and $B$ and $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$
$begingroup$
This excersice took place in class I had today. The exercise was the following:
Let the regular matrix $A$,$B$:
$$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right] hspace{2cm} B = left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right]$$
Knowing that $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, find A.
My Attempt
During the exam I tried the following:
$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow A^2(A^2)^{-1} = A^2A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = B^{-1}$
And procedeed to find the inverse of B, which is:
$A = B^{-1} = left[ begin{matrix} frac{1}{2} &frac{-5}{4} & 1\ 0 & frac{1}{2} & 0 \ frac{1}{2}& frac{1}{4}&0 end{matrix} right]$
But, as I tend to make silly mistakes, I figured out that it would be a better way to do find $A$ just by using matrix products. We had $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = A^2B$. Using this method I got that
$A = A^2B = left[ begin{matrix} 2 & 0 & 2\ 2 & 12 & -6 \ -4& -8&12 end{matrix} right]$
But as you can see the $2$ matrix are different. Where is the mistake in my logic?
Another thing I noticed is that $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A*I_n*B = A*(AB)*B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB = A^2B^2$, but $A^2B^2$ isn't the identity matrix, so maybe the exercise is wrong, but I rather not rush into that thinking.
linear-algebra matrices matrix-equations
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This excersice took place in class I had today. The exercise was the following:
Let the regular matrix $A$,$B$:
$$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right] hspace{2cm} B = left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right]$$
Knowing that $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, find A.
My Attempt
During the exam I tried the following:
$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow A^2(A^2)^{-1} = A^2A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = B^{-1}$
And procedeed to find the inverse of B, which is:
$A = B^{-1} = left[ begin{matrix} frac{1}{2} &frac{-5}{4} & 1\ 0 & frac{1}{2} & 0 \ frac{1}{2}& frac{1}{4}&0 end{matrix} right]$
But, as I tend to make silly mistakes, I figured out that it would be a better way to do find $A$ just by using matrix products. We had $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = A^2B$. Using this method I got that
$A = A^2B = left[ begin{matrix} 2 & 0 & 2\ 2 & 12 & -6 \ -4& -8&12 end{matrix} right]$
But as you can see the $2$ matrix are different. Where is the mistake in my logic?
Another thing I noticed is that $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A*I_n*B = A*(AB)*B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB = A^2B^2$, but $A^2B^2$ isn't the identity matrix, so maybe the exercise is wrong, but I rather not rush into that thinking.
linear-algebra matrices matrix-equations
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This excersice took place in class I had today. The exercise was the following:
Let the regular matrix $A$,$B$:
$$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right] hspace{2cm} B = left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right]$$
Knowing that $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, find A.
My Attempt
During the exam I tried the following:
$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow A^2(A^2)^{-1} = A^2A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = B^{-1}$
And procedeed to find the inverse of B, which is:
$A = B^{-1} = left[ begin{matrix} frac{1}{2} &frac{-5}{4} & 1\ 0 & frac{1}{2} & 0 \ frac{1}{2}& frac{1}{4}&0 end{matrix} right]$
But, as I tend to make silly mistakes, I figured out that it would be a better way to do find $A$ just by using matrix products. We had $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = A^2B$. Using this method I got that
$A = A^2B = left[ begin{matrix} 2 & 0 & 2\ 2 & 12 & -6 \ -4& -8&12 end{matrix} right]$
But as you can see the $2$ matrix are different. Where is the mistake in my logic?
Another thing I noticed is that $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A*I_n*B = A*(AB)*B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB = A^2B^2$, but $A^2B^2$ isn't the identity matrix, so maybe the exercise is wrong, but I rather not rush into that thinking.
linear-algebra matrices matrix-equations
$endgroup$
This excersice took place in class I had today. The exercise was the following:
Let the regular matrix $A$,$B$:
$$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right] hspace{2cm} B = left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right]$$
Knowing that $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, find A.
My Attempt
During the exam I tried the following:
$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow A^2(A^2)^{-1} = A^2A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = B^{-1}$
And procedeed to find the inverse of B, which is:
$A = B^{-1} = left[ begin{matrix} frac{1}{2} &frac{-5}{4} & 1\ 0 & frac{1}{2} & 0 \ frac{1}{2}& frac{1}{4}&0 end{matrix} right]$
But, as I tend to make silly mistakes, I figured out that it would be a better way to do find $A$ just by using matrix products. We had $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = A^2B$. Using this method I got that
$A = A^2B = left[ begin{matrix} 2 & 0 & 2\ 2 & 12 & -6 \ -4& -8&12 end{matrix} right]$
But as you can see the $2$ matrix are different. Where is the mistake in my logic?
Another thing I noticed is that $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A*I_n*B = A*(AB)*B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB = A^2B^2$, but $A^2B^2$ isn't the identity matrix, so maybe the exercise is wrong, but I rather not rush into that thinking.
linear-algebra matrices matrix-equations
linear-algebra matrices matrix-equations
asked Dec 10 '18 at 9:47
Erik T.Erik T.
15513
15513
add a comment |
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Long story short, matrix multiplication is not commutative.
Te equation $A=A^2B$ is not correct. From the equation $$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$$
you have to multiply it by $A$ from the left to get
$$A(A^2)^{-1} = B$$
and the multiply it by $A^2$ from the right and you get
$$A=Bcdot A^2$$
which is not the same as $A=A^2B$.
However, even using $A=BA^2$ results in two different calculations of what $A$ is, and this seems to me like a mistake in the exercise. Indeed, from $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, it should follow that $I=A^2A^{-1}B=AB$, and from that, it should follow that $A=B^{-1}$. However, it is not true that $(B^{-1})^2=A^2$ which means that $A=B^{-1}$ cannot hold, which is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
$endgroup$
– Aaron
Dec 10 '18 at 10:13
$begingroup$
@Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Dec 10 '18 at 10:17
2
$begingroup$
I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
$endgroup$
– AnyAD
Dec 10 '18 at 10:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use the properties of determinant to show that the given relationship does not hold.
$$det ((A^2)^{-1})=-frac1{64}=det (A^{-1})cdot(-4)$$
from the given relationship and properties of determinant. So $det (A)=64cdot 4$ and this cannot be true.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem is broken, here is a precise statement showing how it is broken.
Let $B=left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right].$
For every invertible matrix $A$, at least one of the following are false:
$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]$
$(A^2)^{-1}=A^{-1}B$
Proof.
If 2. holds, then
$$
det bigl((A^2)^{-1}bigl)=det (A^{-1}B).
$$
By direct computation, $det B=-4$. On the other hand,
$$
det left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]=-64.
$$
Consequently if 1. and 2. both hold, then $(-64)^{-1}=(det A)^{-1}cdot (-4),text{ or equivalently, } det A=256.$ But this contradicts 1. Thus, it there does not exist any invertible matrix satisfying both 1. and 2. simultaneously.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Long story short, matrix multiplication is not commutative.
Te equation $A=A^2B$ is not correct. From the equation $$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$$
you have to multiply it by $A$ from the left to get
$$A(A^2)^{-1} = B$$
and the multiply it by $A^2$ from the right and you get
$$A=Bcdot A^2$$
which is not the same as $A=A^2B$.
However, even using $A=BA^2$ results in two different calculations of what $A$ is, and this seems to me like a mistake in the exercise. Indeed, from $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, it should follow that $I=A^2A^{-1}B=AB$, and from that, it should follow that $A=B^{-1}$. However, it is not true that $(B^{-1})^2=A^2$ which means that $A=B^{-1}$ cannot hold, which is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
$endgroup$
– Aaron
Dec 10 '18 at 10:13
$begingroup$
@Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Dec 10 '18 at 10:17
2
$begingroup$
I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
$endgroup$
– AnyAD
Dec 10 '18 at 10:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Long story short, matrix multiplication is not commutative.
Te equation $A=A^2B$ is not correct. From the equation $$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$$
you have to multiply it by $A$ from the left to get
$$A(A^2)^{-1} = B$$
and the multiply it by $A^2$ from the right and you get
$$A=Bcdot A^2$$
which is not the same as $A=A^2B$.
However, even using $A=BA^2$ results in two different calculations of what $A$ is, and this seems to me like a mistake in the exercise. Indeed, from $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, it should follow that $I=A^2A^{-1}B=AB$, and from that, it should follow that $A=B^{-1}$. However, it is not true that $(B^{-1})^2=A^2$ which means that $A=B^{-1}$ cannot hold, which is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
$endgroup$
– Aaron
Dec 10 '18 at 10:13
$begingroup$
@Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Dec 10 '18 at 10:17
2
$begingroup$
I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
$endgroup$
– AnyAD
Dec 10 '18 at 10:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Long story short, matrix multiplication is not commutative.
Te equation $A=A^2B$ is not correct. From the equation $$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$$
you have to multiply it by $A$ from the left to get
$$A(A^2)^{-1} = B$$
and the multiply it by $A^2$ from the right and you get
$$A=Bcdot A^2$$
which is not the same as $A=A^2B$.
However, even using $A=BA^2$ results in two different calculations of what $A$ is, and this seems to me like a mistake in the exercise. Indeed, from $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, it should follow that $I=A^2A^{-1}B=AB$, and from that, it should follow that $A=B^{-1}$. However, it is not true that $(B^{-1})^2=A^2$ which means that $A=B^{-1}$ cannot hold, which is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
Long story short, matrix multiplication is not commutative.
Te equation $A=A^2B$ is not correct. From the equation $$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$$
you have to multiply it by $A$ from the left to get
$$A(A^2)^{-1} = B$$
and the multiply it by $A^2$ from the right and you get
$$A=Bcdot A^2$$
which is not the same as $A=A^2B$.
However, even using $A=BA^2$ results in two different calculations of what $A$ is, and this seems to me like a mistake in the exercise. Indeed, from $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, it should follow that $I=A^2A^{-1}B=AB$, and from that, it should follow that $A=B^{-1}$. However, it is not true that $(B^{-1})^2=A^2$ which means that $A=B^{-1}$ cannot hold, which is a contradiction.
edited Dec 10 '18 at 10:32
Botond
5,6832732
5,6832732
answered Dec 10 '18 at 9:56
5xum5xum
90.6k394161
90.6k394161
3
$begingroup$
It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
$endgroup$
– Aaron
Dec 10 '18 at 10:13
$begingroup$
@Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Dec 10 '18 at 10:17
2
$begingroup$
I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
$endgroup$
– AnyAD
Dec 10 '18 at 10:21
add a comment |
3
$begingroup$
It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
$endgroup$
– Aaron
Dec 10 '18 at 10:13
$begingroup$
@Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Dec 10 '18 at 10:17
2
$begingroup$
I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
$endgroup$
– AnyAD
Dec 10 '18 at 10:21
3
3
$begingroup$
It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
$endgroup$
– Aaron
Dec 10 '18 at 10:13
$begingroup$
It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
$endgroup$
– Aaron
Dec 10 '18 at 10:13
$begingroup$
@Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Dec 10 '18 at 10:17
$begingroup$
@Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Dec 10 '18 at 10:17
2
2
$begingroup$
I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
$endgroup$
– AnyAD
Dec 10 '18 at 10:21
$begingroup$
I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
$endgroup$
– AnyAD
Dec 10 '18 at 10:21
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use the properties of determinant to show that the given relationship does not hold.
$$det ((A^2)^{-1})=-frac1{64}=det (A^{-1})cdot(-4)$$
from the given relationship and properties of determinant. So $det (A)=64cdot 4$ and this cannot be true.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use the properties of determinant to show that the given relationship does not hold.
$$det ((A^2)^{-1})=-frac1{64}=det (A^{-1})cdot(-4)$$
from the given relationship and properties of determinant. So $det (A)=64cdot 4$ and this cannot be true.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use the properties of determinant to show that the given relationship does not hold.
$$det ((A^2)^{-1})=-frac1{64}=det (A^{-1})cdot(-4)$$
from the given relationship and properties of determinant. So $det (A)=64cdot 4$ and this cannot be true.
$endgroup$
Use the properties of determinant to show that the given relationship does not hold.
$$det ((A^2)^{-1})=-frac1{64}=det (A^{-1})cdot(-4)$$
from the given relationship and properties of determinant. So $det (A)=64cdot 4$ and this cannot be true.
edited Dec 10 '18 at 10:20
Christoph
11.9k1642
11.9k1642
answered Dec 10 '18 at 10:12
AnyADAnyAD
2,098812
2,098812
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem is broken, here is a precise statement showing how it is broken.
Let $B=left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right].$
For every invertible matrix $A$, at least one of the following are false:
$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]$
$(A^2)^{-1}=A^{-1}B$
Proof.
If 2. holds, then
$$
det bigl((A^2)^{-1}bigl)=det (A^{-1}B).
$$
By direct computation, $det B=-4$. On the other hand,
$$
det left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]=-64.
$$
Consequently if 1. and 2. both hold, then $(-64)^{-1}=(det A)^{-1}cdot (-4),text{ or equivalently, } det A=256.$ But this contradicts 1. Thus, it there does not exist any invertible matrix satisfying both 1. and 2. simultaneously.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem is broken, here is a precise statement showing how it is broken.
Let $B=left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right].$
For every invertible matrix $A$, at least one of the following are false:
$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]$
$(A^2)^{-1}=A^{-1}B$
Proof.
If 2. holds, then
$$
det bigl((A^2)^{-1}bigl)=det (A^{-1}B).
$$
By direct computation, $det B=-4$. On the other hand,
$$
det left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]=-64.
$$
Consequently if 1. and 2. both hold, then $(-64)^{-1}=(det A)^{-1}cdot (-4),text{ or equivalently, } det A=256.$ But this contradicts 1. Thus, it there does not exist any invertible matrix satisfying both 1. and 2. simultaneously.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The problem is broken, here is a precise statement showing how it is broken.
Let $B=left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right].$
For every invertible matrix $A$, at least one of the following are false:
$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]$
$(A^2)^{-1}=A^{-1}B$
Proof.
If 2. holds, then
$$
det bigl((A^2)^{-1}bigl)=det (A^{-1}B).
$$
By direct computation, $det B=-4$. On the other hand,
$$
det left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]=-64.
$$
Consequently if 1. and 2. both hold, then $(-64)^{-1}=(det A)^{-1}cdot (-4),text{ or equivalently, } det A=256.$ But this contradicts 1. Thus, it there does not exist any invertible matrix satisfying both 1. and 2. simultaneously.
$endgroup$
The problem is broken, here is a precise statement showing how it is broken.
Let $B=left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right].$
For every invertible matrix $A$, at least one of the following are false:
$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]$
$(A^2)^{-1}=A^{-1}B$
Proof.
If 2. holds, then
$$
det bigl((A^2)^{-1}bigl)=det (A^{-1}B).
$$
By direct computation, $det B=-4$. On the other hand,
$$
det left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]=-64.
$$
Consequently if 1. and 2. both hold, then $(-64)^{-1}=(det A)^{-1}cdot (-4),text{ or equivalently, } det A=256.$ But this contradicts 1. Thus, it there does not exist any invertible matrix satisfying both 1. and 2. simultaneously.
answered Dec 10 '18 at 10:44
pre-kidneypre-kidney
12.8k1748
12.8k1748
add a comment |
add a comment |
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