Find $A$ given $A^2$ and $B$ and $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$












5












$begingroup$


This excersice took place in class I had today. The exercise was the following:




Let the regular matrix $A$,$B$:



$$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right] hspace{2cm} B = left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right]$$



Knowing that $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, find A.




My Attempt



During the exam I tried the following:



$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow A^2(A^2)^{-1} = A^2A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = B^{-1}$



And procedeed to find the inverse of B, which is:



$A = B^{-1} = left[ begin{matrix} frac{1}{2} &frac{-5}{4} & 1\ 0 & frac{1}{2} & 0 \ frac{1}{2}& frac{1}{4}&0 end{matrix} right]$



But, as I tend to make silly mistakes, I figured out that it would be a better way to do find $A$ just by using matrix products. We had $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = A^2B$. Using this method I got that



$A = A^2B = left[ begin{matrix} 2 & 0 & 2\ 2 & 12 & -6 \ -4& -8&12 end{matrix} right]$



But as you can see the $2$ matrix are different. Where is the mistake in my logic?



Another thing I noticed is that $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A*I_n*B = A*(AB)*B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB = A^2B^2$, but $A^2B^2$ isn't the identity matrix, so maybe the exercise is wrong, but I rather not rush into that thinking.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    5












    $begingroup$


    This excersice took place in class I had today. The exercise was the following:




    Let the regular matrix $A$,$B$:



    $$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right] hspace{2cm} B = left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right]$$



    Knowing that $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, find A.




    My Attempt



    During the exam I tried the following:



    $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow A^2(A^2)^{-1} = A^2A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = B^{-1}$



    And procedeed to find the inverse of B, which is:



    $A = B^{-1} = left[ begin{matrix} frac{1}{2} &frac{-5}{4} & 1\ 0 & frac{1}{2} & 0 \ frac{1}{2}& frac{1}{4}&0 end{matrix} right]$



    But, as I tend to make silly mistakes, I figured out that it would be a better way to do find $A$ just by using matrix products. We had $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = A^2B$. Using this method I got that



    $A = A^2B = left[ begin{matrix} 2 & 0 & 2\ 2 & 12 & -6 \ -4& -8&12 end{matrix} right]$



    But as you can see the $2$ matrix are different. Where is the mistake in my logic?



    Another thing I noticed is that $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A*I_n*B = A*(AB)*B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB = A^2B^2$, but $A^2B^2$ isn't the identity matrix, so maybe the exercise is wrong, but I rather not rush into that thinking.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      5












      5








      5





      $begingroup$


      This excersice took place in class I had today. The exercise was the following:




      Let the regular matrix $A$,$B$:



      $$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right] hspace{2cm} B = left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right]$$



      Knowing that $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, find A.




      My Attempt



      During the exam I tried the following:



      $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow A^2(A^2)^{-1} = A^2A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = B^{-1}$



      And procedeed to find the inverse of B, which is:



      $A = B^{-1} = left[ begin{matrix} frac{1}{2} &frac{-5}{4} & 1\ 0 & frac{1}{2} & 0 \ frac{1}{2}& frac{1}{4}&0 end{matrix} right]$



      But, as I tend to make silly mistakes, I figured out that it would be a better way to do find $A$ just by using matrix products. We had $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = A^2B$. Using this method I got that



      $A = A^2B = left[ begin{matrix} 2 & 0 & 2\ 2 & 12 & -6 \ -4& -8&12 end{matrix} right]$



      But as you can see the $2$ matrix are different. Where is the mistake in my logic?



      Another thing I noticed is that $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A*I_n*B = A*(AB)*B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB = A^2B^2$, but $A^2B^2$ isn't the identity matrix, so maybe the exercise is wrong, but I rather not rush into that thinking.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      This excersice took place in class I had today. The exercise was the following:




      Let the regular matrix $A$,$B$:



      $$A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right] hspace{2cm} B = left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right]$$



      Knowing that $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, find A.




      My Attempt



      During the exam I tried the following:



      $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow A^2(A^2)^{-1} = A^2A^{-1}B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = B^{-1}$



      And procedeed to find the inverse of B, which is:



      $A = B^{-1} = left[ begin{matrix} frac{1}{2} &frac{-5}{4} & 1\ 0 & frac{1}{2} & 0 \ frac{1}{2}& frac{1}{4}&0 end{matrix} right]$



      But, as I tend to make silly mistakes, I figured out that it would be a better way to do find $A$ just by using matrix products. We had $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A = A^2B$. Using this method I got that



      $A = A^2B = left[ begin{matrix} 2 & 0 & 2\ 2 & 12 & -6 \ -4& -8&12 end{matrix} right]$



      But as you can see the $2$ matrix are different. Where is the mistake in my logic?



      Another thing I noticed is that $I_n = AB Leftrightarrow A*I_n*B = A*(AB)*B Leftrightarrow I_n = AB = A^2B^2$, but $A^2B^2$ isn't the identity matrix, so maybe the exercise is wrong, but I rather not rush into that thinking.







      linear-algebra matrices matrix-equations






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      asked Dec 10 '18 at 9:47









      Erik T.Erik T.

      15513




      15513






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          -2












          $begingroup$

          Long story short, matrix multiplication is not commutative.





          Te equation $A=A^2B$ is not correct. From the equation $$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$$



          you have to multiply it by $A$ from the left to get
          $$A(A^2)^{-1} = B$$



          and the multiply it by $A^2$ from the right and you get



          $$A=Bcdot A^2$$



          which is not the same as $A=A^2B$.





          However, even using $A=BA^2$ results in two different calculations of what $A$ is, and this seems to me like a mistake in the exercise. Indeed, from $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, it should follow that $I=A^2A^{-1}B=AB$, and from that, it should follow that $A=B^{-1}$. However, it is not true that $(B^{-1})^2=A^2$ which means that $A=B^{-1}$ cannot hold, which is a contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 3




            $begingroup$
            It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
            $endgroup$
            – Aaron
            Dec 10 '18 at 10:13










          • $begingroup$
            @Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
            $endgroup$
            – 5xum
            Dec 10 '18 at 10:17






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
            $endgroup$
            – AnyAD
            Dec 10 '18 at 10:21



















          3












          $begingroup$

          Use the properties of determinant to show that the given relationship does not hold.
          $$det ((A^2)^{-1})=-frac1{64}=det (A^{-1})cdot(-4)$$
          from the given relationship and properties of determinant. So $det (A)=64cdot 4$ and this cannot be true.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            The problem is broken, here is a precise statement showing how it is broken.



            Let $B=left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right].$



            For every invertible matrix $A$, at least one of the following are false:




            1. $A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]$


            2. $(A^2)^{-1}=A^{-1}B$



            Proof.
            If 2. holds, then
            $$
            det bigl((A^2)^{-1}bigl)=det (A^{-1}B).
            $$



            By direct computation, $det B=-4$. On the other hand,
            $$
            det left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]=-64.
            $$

            Consequently if 1. and 2. both hold, then $(-64)^{-1}=(det A)^{-1}cdot (-4),text{ or equivalently, } det A=256.$ But this contradicts 1. Thus, it there does not exist any invertible matrix satisfying both 1. and 2. simultaneously.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              -2












              $begingroup$

              Long story short, matrix multiplication is not commutative.





              Te equation $A=A^2B$ is not correct. From the equation $$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$$



              you have to multiply it by $A$ from the left to get
              $$A(A^2)^{-1} = B$$



              and the multiply it by $A^2$ from the right and you get



              $$A=Bcdot A^2$$



              which is not the same as $A=A^2B$.





              However, even using $A=BA^2$ results in two different calculations of what $A$ is, and this seems to me like a mistake in the exercise. Indeed, from $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, it should follow that $I=A^2A^{-1}B=AB$, and from that, it should follow that $A=B^{-1}$. However, it is not true that $(B^{-1})^2=A^2$ which means that $A=B^{-1}$ cannot hold, which is a contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$









              • 3




                $begingroup$
                It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
                $endgroup$
                – Aaron
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:13










              • $begingroup$
                @Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
                $endgroup$
                – 5xum
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:17






              • 2




                $begingroup$
                I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
                $endgroup$
                – AnyAD
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:21
















              -2












              $begingroup$

              Long story short, matrix multiplication is not commutative.





              Te equation $A=A^2B$ is not correct. From the equation $$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$$



              you have to multiply it by $A$ from the left to get
              $$A(A^2)^{-1} = B$$



              and the multiply it by $A^2$ from the right and you get



              $$A=Bcdot A^2$$



              which is not the same as $A=A^2B$.





              However, even using $A=BA^2$ results in two different calculations of what $A$ is, and this seems to me like a mistake in the exercise. Indeed, from $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, it should follow that $I=A^2A^{-1}B=AB$, and from that, it should follow that $A=B^{-1}$. However, it is not true that $(B^{-1})^2=A^2$ which means that $A=B^{-1}$ cannot hold, which is a contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$









              • 3




                $begingroup$
                It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
                $endgroup$
                – Aaron
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:13










              • $begingroup$
                @Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
                $endgroup$
                – 5xum
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:17






              • 2




                $begingroup$
                I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
                $endgroup$
                – AnyAD
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:21














              -2












              -2








              -2





              $begingroup$

              Long story short, matrix multiplication is not commutative.





              Te equation $A=A^2B$ is not correct. From the equation $$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$$



              you have to multiply it by $A$ from the left to get
              $$A(A^2)^{-1} = B$$



              and the multiply it by $A^2$ from the right and you get



              $$A=Bcdot A^2$$



              which is not the same as $A=A^2B$.





              However, even using $A=BA^2$ results in two different calculations of what $A$ is, and this seems to me like a mistake in the exercise. Indeed, from $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, it should follow that $I=A^2A^{-1}B=AB$, and from that, it should follow that $A=B^{-1}$. However, it is not true that $(B^{-1})^2=A^2$ which means that $A=B^{-1}$ cannot hold, which is a contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              Long story short, matrix multiplication is not commutative.





              Te equation $A=A^2B$ is not correct. From the equation $$(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$$



              you have to multiply it by $A$ from the left to get
              $$A(A^2)^{-1} = B$$



              and the multiply it by $A^2$ from the right and you get



              $$A=Bcdot A^2$$



              which is not the same as $A=A^2B$.





              However, even using $A=BA^2$ results in two different calculations of what $A$ is, and this seems to me like a mistake in the exercise. Indeed, from $(A^2)^{-1} = A^{-1}B$, it should follow that $I=A^2A^{-1}B=AB$, and from that, it should follow that $A=B^{-1}$. However, it is not true that $(B^{-1})^2=A^2$ which means that $A=B^{-1}$ cannot hold, which is a contradiction.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Dec 10 '18 at 10:32









              Botond

              5,6832732




              5,6832732










              answered Dec 10 '18 at 9:56









              5xum5xum

              90.6k394161




              90.6k394161








              • 3




                $begingroup$
                It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
                $endgroup$
                – Aaron
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:13










              • $begingroup$
                @Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
                $endgroup$
                – 5xum
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:17






              • 2




                $begingroup$
                I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
                $endgroup$
                – AnyAD
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:21














              • 3




                $begingroup$
                It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
                $endgroup$
                – Aaron
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:13










              • $begingroup$
                @Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
                $endgroup$
                – 5xum
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:17






              • 2




                $begingroup$
                I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
                $endgroup$
                – AnyAD
                Dec 10 '18 at 10:21








              3




              3




              $begingroup$
              It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
              $endgroup$
              – Aaron
              Dec 10 '18 at 10:13




              $begingroup$
              It is correct, though, because multiplying on the left by $A^2$ yields $I=AB$, and then multiplying by $A$ on the left again yields $A=A^2 B$. Once you have that $B$ is the inverse of $A$, you also know that it commutes with $A$, and so all commutativity issues disappear. The issue is that the stated equality just doesn't hold.
              $endgroup$
              – Aaron
              Dec 10 '18 at 10:13












              $begingroup$
              @Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
              $endgroup$
              – 5xum
              Dec 10 '18 at 10:17




              $begingroup$
              @Aaron OK, sure, if OP used the fact that $B$ and $A$ commute, I wouldn't say they did anything wrong.
              $endgroup$
              – 5xum
              Dec 10 '18 at 10:17




              2




              2




              $begingroup$
              I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
              $endgroup$
              – AnyAD
              Dec 10 '18 at 10:21




              $begingroup$
              I am not sure OP did anything wrong (they used $(A^2)^{-1}=(A^{-1})^2$).
              $endgroup$
              – AnyAD
              Dec 10 '18 at 10:21











              3












              $begingroup$

              Use the properties of determinant to show that the given relationship does not hold.
              $$det ((A^2)^{-1})=-frac1{64}=det (A^{-1})cdot(-4)$$
              from the given relationship and properties of determinant. So $det (A)=64cdot 4$ and this cannot be true.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                3












                $begingroup$

                Use the properties of determinant to show that the given relationship does not hold.
                $$det ((A^2)^{-1})=-frac1{64}=det (A^{-1})cdot(-4)$$
                from the given relationship and properties of determinant. So $det (A)=64cdot 4$ and this cannot be true.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  Use the properties of determinant to show that the given relationship does not hold.
                  $$det ((A^2)^{-1})=-frac1{64}=det (A^{-1})cdot(-4)$$
                  from the given relationship and properties of determinant. So $det (A)=64cdot 4$ and this cannot be true.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Use the properties of determinant to show that the given relationship does not hold.
                  $$det ((A^2)^{-1})=-frac1{64}=det (A^{-1})cdot(-4)$$
                  from the given relationship and properties of determinant. So $det (A)=64cdot 4$ and this cannot be true.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Dec 10 '18 at 10:20









                  Christoph

                  11.9k1642




                  11.9k1642










                  answered Dec 10 '18 at 10:12









                  AnyADAnyAD

                  2,098812




                  2,098812























                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      The problem is broken, here is a precise statement showing how it is broken.



                      Let $B=left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right].$



                      For every invertible matrix $A$, at least one of the following are false:




                      1. $A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]$


                      2. $(A^2)^{-1}=A^{-1}B$



                      Proof.
                      If 2. holds, then
                      $$
                      det bigl((A^2)^{-1}bigl)=det (A^{-1}B).
                      $$



                      By direct computation, $det B=-4$. On the other hand,
                      $$
                      det left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]=-64.
                      $$

                      Consequently if 1. and 2. both hold, then $(-64)^{-1}=(det A)^{-1}cdot (-4),text{ or equivalently, } det A=256.$ But this contradicts 1. Thus, it there does not exist any invertible matrix satisfying both 1. and 2. simultaneously.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        The problem is broken, here is a precise statement showing how it is broken.



                        Let $B=left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right].$



                        For every invertible matrix $A$, at least one of the following are false:




                        1. $A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]$


                        2. $(A^2)^{-1}=A^{-1}B$



                        Proof.
                        If 2. holds, then
                        $$
                        det bigl((A^2)^{-1}bigl)=det (A^{-1}B).
                        $$



                        By direct computation, $det B=-4$. On the other hand,
                        $$
                        det left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]=-64.
                        $$

                        Consequently if 1. and 2. both hold, then $(-64)^{-1}=(det A)^{-1}cdot (-4),text{ or equivalently, } det A=256.$ But this contradicts 1. Thus, it there does not exist any invertible matrix satisfying both 1. and 2. simultaneously.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          2












                          2








                          2





                          $begingroup$

                          The problem is broken, here is a precise statement showing how it is broken.



                          Let $B=left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right].$



                          For every invertible matrix $A$, at least one of the following are false:




                          1. $A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]$


                          2. $(A^2)^{-1}=A^{-1}B$



                          Proof.
                          If 2. holds, then
                          $$
                          det bigl((A^2)^{-1}bigl)=det (A^{-1}B).
                          $$



                          By direct computation, $det B=-4$. On the other hand,
                          $$
                          det left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]=-64.
                          $$

                          Consequently if 1. and 2. both hold, then $(-64)^{-1}=(det A)^{-1}cdot (-4),text{ or equivalently, } det A=256.$ But this contradicts 1. Thus, it there does not exist any invertible matrix satisfying both 1. and 2. simultaneously.






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                          $endgroup$



                          The problem is broken, here is a precise statement showing how it is broken.



                          Let $B=left[ begin{matrix} 0 &-1 & 2\ 0 & 2 & 0 \ 1&3&-1 end{matrix} right].$



                          For every invertible matrix $A$, at least one of the following are false:




                          1. $A^2 = left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]$


                          2. $(A^2)^{-1}=A^{-1}B$



                          Proof.
                          If 2. holds, then
                          $$
                          det bigl((A^2)^{-1}bigl)=det (A^{-1}B).
                          $$



                          By direct computation, $det B=-4$. On the other hand,
                          $$
                          det left[ begin{matrix} 2 &-2 & 2\ -2 & 2 & 2 \ 4&4&-4 end{matrix} right]=-64.
                          $$

                          Consequently if 1. and 2. both hold, then $(-64)^{-1}=(det A)^{-1}cdot (-4),text{ or equivalently, } det A=256.$ But this contradicts 1. Thus, it there does not exist any invertible matrix satisfying both 1. and 2. simultaneously.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 10 '18 at 10:44









                          pre-kidneypre-kidney

                          12.8k1748




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