Proof that $(n+1)m!>(m+1)!−1$ does not hold for $m>n$












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I am currently doing a project that involves some work on Liouville's theorem for transcendental numbers and Liouville's constant. I have found a proof that Liouville's constant is transcendental however it come with this note:



"so that $(n+1)m!>(m+1)!−1$ for all sufficiently large m. But this is false for any value of m greater than n (the reader should give a detailed proof of this statement)" - Taken from What is Mathematics? R. Courant, H. Robbins, I. Stewart.



Since I want my project to be as thorough as possible I would like to include this proof however I don't know how to do it. I know that the starting point is $(m+1)!=(m+1)m!$ but not sure what my next steps should be.



Thanks in advance










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I am currently doing a project that involves some work on Liouville's theorem for transcendental numbers and Liouville's constant. I have found a proof that Liouville's constant is transcendental however it come with this note:



    "so that $(n+1)m!>(m+1)!−1$ for all sufficiently large m. But this is false for any value of m greater than n (the reader should give a detailed proof of this statement)" - Taken from What is Mathematics? R. Courant, H. Robbins, I. Stewart.



    Since I want my project to be as thorough as possible I would like to include this proof however I don't know how to do it. I know that the starting point is $(m+1)!=(m+1)m!$ but not sure what my next steps should be.



    Thanks in advance










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I am currently doing a project that involves some work on Liouville's theorem for transcendental numbers and Liouville's constant. I have found a proof that Liouville's constant is transcendental however it come with this note:



      "so that $(n+1)m!>(m+1)!−1$ for all sufficiently large m. But this is false for any value of m greater than n (the reader should give a detailed proof of this statement)" - Taken from What is Mathematics? R. Courant, H. Robbins, I. Stewart.



      Since I want my project to be as thorough as possible I would like to include this proof however I don't know how to do it. I know that the starting point is $(m+1)!=(m+1)m!$ but not sure what my next steps should be.



      Thanks in advance










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am currently doing a project that involves some work on Liouville's theorem for transcendental numbers and Liouville's constant. I have found a proof that Liouville's constant is transcendental however it come with this note:



      "so that $(n+1)m!>(m+1)!−1$ for all sufficiently large m. But this is false for any value of m greater than n (the reader should give a detailed proof of this statement)" - Taken from What is Mathematics? R. Courant, H. Robbins, I. Stewart.



      Since I want my project to be as thorough as possible I would like to include this proof however I don't know how to do it. I know that the starting point is $(m+1)!=(m+1)m!$ but not sure what my next steps should be.



      Thanks in advance







      proof-writing transcendental-numbers liouville-numbers






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      asked Dec 11 '18 at 15:58









      AntRobinsonAntRobinson

      838




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          The inequality does hold for $m=1,n=0$ so you need to exclude that case. Otherwise $m! gt 1$ and we can say $(m+1)!-1=(m+1)m!-1=(n+1)m!+(m-n)m!-1 gt (n+1)m!$ because $m-n ge 1$






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            For $m=n+p>n$ we have



            $$(n+1)m!=(n+1)(n+p)!<(n+p+1)(n+p)!-p(n+p)!=$$$$=(n+p+1)!-p(n+p)!=(m+1)!-p(n+p)!le(m+1)!−1$$






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              Hint: Factorize:
              $$(n+1)m!>(m+1)!−1 iff \
              m!(n+1-m-1)>-1 iff \
              m!(n-m)>-1.$$






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                3 Answers
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                3 Answers
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                $begingroup$

                The inequality does hold for $m=1,n=0$ so you need to exclude that case. Otherwise $m! gt 1$ and we can say $(m+1)!-1=(m+1)m!-1=(n+1)m!+(m-n)m!-1 gt (n+1)m!$ because $m-n ge 1$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  0












                  $begingroup$

                  The inequality does hold for $m=1,n=0$ so you need to exclude that case. Otherwise $m! gt 1$ and we can say $(m+1)!-1=(m+1)m!-1=(n+1)m!+(m-n)m!-1 gt (n+1)m!$ because $m-n ge 1$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















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                    0





                    $begingroup$

                    The inequality does hold for $m=1,n=0$ so you need to exclude that case. Otherwise $m! gt 1$ and we can say $(m+1)!-1=(m+1)m!-1=(n+1)m!+(m-n)m!-1 gt (n+1)m!$ because $m-n ge 1$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    The inequality does hold for $m=1,n=0$ so you need to exclude that case. Otherwise $m! gt 1$ and we can say $(m+1)!-1=(m+1)m!-1=(n+1)m!+(m-n)m!-1 gt (n+1)m!$ because $m-n ge 1$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












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                    answered Dec 11 '18 at 16:05









                    Ross MillikanRoss Millikan

                    295k23198371




                    295k23198371























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                        For $m=n+p>n$ we have



                        $$(n+1)m!=(n+1)(n+p)!<(n+p+1)(n+p)!-p(n+p)!=$$$$=(n+p+1)!-p(n+p)!=(m+1)!-p(n+p)!le(m+1)!−1$$






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                          $begingroup$

                          For $m=n+p>n$ we have



                          $$(n+1)m!=(n+1)(n+p)!<(n+p+1)(n+p)!-p(n+p)!=$$$$=(n+p+1)!-p(n+p)!=(m+1)!-p(n+p)!le(m+1)!−1$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















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                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            For $m=n+p>n$ we have



                            $$(n+1)m!=(n+1)(n+p)!<(n+p+1)(n+p)!-p(n+p)!=$$$$=(n+p+1)!-p(n+p)!=(m+1)!-p(n+p)!le(m+1)!−1$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            For $m=n+p>n$ we have



                            $$(n+1)m!=(n+1)(n+p)!<(n+p+1)(n+p)!-p(n+p)!=$$$$=(n+p+1)!-p(n+p)!=(m+1)!-p(n+p)!le(m+1)!−1$$







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                            answered Dec 11 '18 at 16:02









                            gimusigimusi

                            92.8k84494




                            92.8k84494























                                0












                                $begingroup$

                                Hint: Factorize:
                                $$(n+1)m!>(m+1)!−1 iff \
                                m!(n+1-m-1)>-1 iff \
                                m!(n-m)>-1.$$






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$


















                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Hint: Factorize:
                                  $$(n+1)m!>(m+1)!−1 iff \
                                  m!(n+1-m-1)>-1 iff \
                                  m!(n-m)>-1.$$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$
















                                    0












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                                    0





                                    $begingroup$

                                    Hint: Factorize:
                                    $$(n+1)m!>(m+1)!−1 iff \
                                    m!(n+1-m-1)>-1 iff \
                                    m!(n-m)>-1.$$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$



                                    Hint: Factorize:
                                    $$(n+1)m!>(m+1)!−1 iff \
                                    m!(n+1-m-1)>-1 iff \
                                    m!(n-m)>-1.$$







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Dec 11 '18 at 16:15









                                    farruhotafarruhota

                                    20.2k2738




                                    20.2k2738






























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