Random variables with arbitrary positive correlation but without arbitrary negative correlation. Then...












1












$begingroup$


Let $X_i in L_2$ be a sequence of pairwise correlated random variables. The random variables can have arbitrary positive correlation but can't have arbitrary negative correlation.




How can I show that for $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ and $forall i,j in {1,ldots,n}, ineq j$



$$mathrm{Cor}(X_i,X_j)<frac{-1}{n-1}$$
is not possible











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  • $begingroup$
    Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – dallonsi
    Dec 11 '18 at 15:27












  • $begingroup$
    @dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus M
    Dec 11 '18 at 17:21










  • $begingroup$
    yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
    $endgroup$
    – dallonsi
    Dec 13 '18 at 13:11
















1












$begingroup$


Let $X_i in L_2$ be a sequence of pairwise correlated random variables. The random variables can have arbitrary positive correlation but can't have arbitrary negative correlation.




How can I show that for $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ and $forall i,j in {1,ldots,n}, ineq j$



$$mathrm{Cor}(X_i,X_j)<frac{-1}{n-1}$$
is not possible











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – dallonsi
    Dec 11 '18 at 15:27












  • $begingroup$
    @dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus M
    Dec 11 '18 at 17:21










  • $begingroup$
    yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
    $endgroup$
    – dallonsi
    Dec 13 '18 at 13:11














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Let $X_i in L_2$ be a sequence of pairwise correlated random variables. The random variables can have arbitrary positive correlation but can't have arbitrary negative correlation.




How can I show that for $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ and $forall i,j in {1,ldots,n}, ineq j$



$$mathrm{Cor}(X_i,X_j)<frac{-1}{n-1}$$
is not possible











share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $X_i in L_2$ be a sequence of pairwise correlated random variables. The random variables can have arbitrary positive correlation but can't have arbitrary negative correlation.




How can I show that for $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ and $forall i,j in {1,ldots,n}, ineq j$



$$mathrm{Cor}(X_i,X_j)<frac{-1}{n-1}$$
is not possible








probability statistics measure-theory






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asked Dec 11 '18 at 15:04









conradconrad

757




757












  • $begingroup$
    Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – dallonsi
    Dec 11 '18 at 15:27












  • $begingroup$
    @dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus M
    Dec 11 '18 at 17:21










  • $begingroup$
    yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
    $endgroup$
    – dallonsi
    Dec 13 '18 at 13:11


















  • $begingroup$
    Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – dallonsi
    Dec 11 '18 at 15:27












  • $begingroup$
    @dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
    $endgroup$
    – Marcus M
    Dec 11 '18 at 17:21










  • $begingroup$
    yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
    $endgroup$
    – dallonsi
    Dec 13 '18 at 13:11
















$begingroup$
Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 11 '18 at 15:27






$begingroup$
Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 11 '18 at 15:27














$begingroup$
@dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
$endgroup$
– Marcus M
Dec 11 '18 at 17:21




$begingroup$
@dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
$endgroup$
– Marcus M
Dec 11 '18 at 17:21












$begingroup$
yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 13 '18 at 13:11




$begingroup$
yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 13 '18 at 13:11










1 Answer
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The idea is to realize that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite. Define variables $Y_j = X_j/ sqrt{operatorname{Var}(X_j)}.$ Seeking a contradiction, suppose that the condition you mention holds, i.e. $$operatorname{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Y_j) < -frac{1}{n-1}.$$



Let $Sigma$ be the covariance matrix of $(Y_1,ldots,Y_n)$. Then $Sigma$ has $1$'s on the diagonal, and each off-diagonal entry is less than $-frac{1}{n-1}$. If we define $x = (1,1,ldots,1)^T$, then we see that $x^T Sigma x < 0$, which contradicts the fact that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite.






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    $begingroup$

    The idea is to realize that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite. Define variables $Y_j = X_j/ sqrt{operatorname{Var}(X_j)}.$ Seeking a contradiction, suppose that the condition you mention holds, i.e. $$operatorname{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Y_j) < -frac{1}{n-1}.$$



    Let $Sigma$ be the covariance matrix of $(Y_1,ldots,Y_n)$. Then $Sigma$ has $1$'s on the diagonal, and each off-diagonal entry is less than $-frac{1}{n-1}$. If we define $x = (1,1,ldots,1)^T$, then we see that $x^T Sigma x < 0$, which contradicts the fact that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2












      $begingroup$

      The idea is to realize that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite. Define variables $Y_j = X_j/ sqrt{operatorname{Var}(X_j)}.$ Seeking a contradiction, suppose that the condition you mention holds, i.e. $$operatorname{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Y_j) < -frac{1}{n-1}.$$



      Let $Sigma$ be the covariance matrix of $(Y_1,ldots,Y_n)$. Then $Sigma$ has $1$'s on the diagonal, and each off-diagonal entry is less than $-frac{1}{n-1}$. If we define $x = (1,1,ldots,1)^T$, then we see that $x^T Sigma x < 0$, which contradicts the fact that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        The idea is to realize that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite. Define variables $Y_j = X_j/ sqrt{operatorname{Var}(X_j)}.$ Seeking a contradiction, suppose that the condition you mention holds, i.e. $$operatorname{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Y_j) < -frac{1}{n-1}.$$



        Let $Sigma$ be the covariance matrix of $(Y_1,ldots,Y_n)$. Then $Sigma$ has $1$'s on the diagonal, and each off-diagonal entry is less than $-frac{1}{n-1}$. If we define $x = (1,1,ldots,1)^T$, then we see that $x^T Sigma x < 0$, which contradicts the fact that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The idea is to realize that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite. Define variables $Y_j = X_j/ sqrt{operatorname{Var}(X_j)}.$ Seeking a contradiction, suppose that the condition you mention holds, i.e. $$operatorname{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Y_j) < -frac{1}{n-1}.$$



        Let $Sigma$ be the covariance matrix of $(Y_1,ldots,Y_n)$. Then $Sigma$ has $1$'s on the diagonal, and each off-diagonal entry is less than $-frac{1}{n-1}$. If we define $x = (1,1,ldots,1)^T$, then we see that $x^T Sigma x < 0$, which contradicts the fact that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 11 '18 at 17:25









        Marcus MMarcus M

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