Random variables with arbitrary positive correlation but without arbitrary negative correlation. Then...
$begingroup$
Let $X_i in L_2$ be a sequence of pairwise correlated random variables. The random variables can have arbitrary positive correlation but can't have arbitrary negative correlation.
How can I show that for $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ and $forall i,j in {1,ldots,n}, ineq j$
$$mathrm{Cor}(X_i,X_j)<frac{-1}{n-1}$$
is not possible
probability statistics measure-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $X_i in L_2$ be a sequence of pairwise correlated random variables. The random variables can have arbitrary positive correlation but can't have arbitrary negative correlation.
How can I show that for $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ and $forall i,j in {1,ldots,n}, ineq j$
$$mathrm{Cor}(X_i,X_j)<frac{-1}{n-1}$$
is not possible
probability statistics measure-theory
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 11 '18 at 15:27
$begingroup$
@dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
$endgroup$
– Marcus M
Dec 11 '18 at 17:21
$begingroup$
yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 13 '18 at 13:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $X_i in L_2$ be a sequence of pairwise correlated random variables. The random variables can have arbitrary positive correlation but can't have arbitrary negative correlation.
How can I show that for $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ and $forall i,j in {1,ldots,n}, ineq j$
$$mathrm{Cor}(X_i,X_j)<frac{-1}{n-1}$$
is not possible
probability statistics measure-theory
$endgroup$
Let $X_i in L_2$ be a sequence of pairwise correlated random variables. The random variables can have arbitrary positive correlation but can't have arbitrary negative correlation.
How can I show that for $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ and $forall i,j in {1,ldots,n}, ineq j$
$$mathrm{Cor}(X_i,X_j)<frac{-1}{n-1}$$
is not possible
probability statistics measure-theory
probability statistics measure-theory
asked Dec 11 '18 at 15:04
conradconrad
757
757
$begingroup$
Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 11 '18 at 15:27
$begingroup$
@dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
$endgroup$
– Marcus M
Dec 11 '18 at 17:21
$begingroup$
yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 13 '18 at 13:11
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 11 '18 at 15:27
$begingroup$
@dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
$endgroup$
– Marcus M
Dec 11 '18 at 17:21
$begingroup$
yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 13 '18 at 13:11
$begingroup$
Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 11 '18 at 15:27
$begingroup$
Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 11 '18 at 15:27
$begingroup$
@dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
$endgroup$
– Marcus M
Dec 11 '18 at 17:21
$begingroup$
@dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
$endgroup$
– Marcus M
Dec 11 '18 at 17:21
$begingroup$
yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 13 '18 at 13:11
$begingroup$
yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 13 '18 at 13:11
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The idea is to realize that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite. Define variables $Y_j = X_j/ sqrt{operatorname{Var}(X_j)}.$ Seeking a contradiction, suppose that the condition you mention holds, i.e. $$operatorname{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Y_j) < -frac{1}{n-1}.$$
Let $Sigma$ be the covariance matrix of $(Y_1,ldots,Y_n)$. Then $Sigma$ has $1$'s on the diagonal, and each off-diagonal entry is less than $-frac{1}{n-1}$. If we define $x = (1,1,ldots,1)^T$, then we see that $x^T Sigma x < 0$, which contradicts the fact that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
Your Answer
StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");
StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);
StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});
function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});
}
});
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3035378%2frandom-variables-with-arbitrary-positive-correlation-but-without-arbitrary-negat%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The idea is to realize that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite. Define variables $Y_j = X_j/ sqrt{operatorname{Var}(X_j)}.$ Seeking a contradiction, suppose that the condition you mention holds, i.e. $$operatorname{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Y_j) < -frac{1}{n-1}.$$
Let $Sigma$ be the covariance matrix of $(Y_1,ldots,Y_n)$. Then $Sigma$ has $1$'s on the diagonal, and each off-diagonal entry is less than $-frac{1}{n-1}$. If we define $x = (1,1,ldots,1)^T$, then we see that $x^T Sigma x < 0$, which contradicts the fact that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The idea is to realize that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite. Define variables $Y_j = X_j/ sqrt{operatorname{Var}(X_j)}.$ Seeking a contradiction, suppose that the condition you mention holds, i.e. $$operatorname{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Y_j) < -frac{1}{n-1}.$$
Let $Sigma$ be the covariance matrix of $(Y_1,ldots,Y_n)$. Then $Sigma$ has $1$'s on the diagonal, and each off-diagonal entry is less than $-frac{1}{n-1}$. If we define $x = (1,1,ldots,1)^T$, then we see that $x^T Sigma x < 0$, which contradicts the fact that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The idea is to realize that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite. Define variables $Y_j = X_j/ sqrt{operatorname{Var}(X_j)}.$ Seeking a contradiction, suppose that the condition you mention holds, i.e. $$operatorname{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Y_j) < -frac{1}{n-1}.$$
Let $Sigma$ be the covariance matrix of $(Y_1,ldots,Y_n)$. Then $Sigma$ has $1$'s on the diagonal, and each off-diagonal entry is less than $-frac{1}{n-1}$. If we define $x = (1,1,ldots,1)^T$, then we see that $x^T Sigma x < 0$, which contradicts the fact that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite.
$endgroup$
The idea is to realize that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite. Define variables $Y_j = X_j/ sqrt{operatorname{Var}(X_j)}.$ Seeking a contradiction, suppose that the condition you mention holds, i.e. $$operatorname{Cor}(X_i,X_j) = operatorname{Cov}(Y_i,Y_j) < -frac{1}{n-1}.$$
Let $Sigma$ be the covariance matrix of $(Y_1,ldots,Y_n)$. Then $Sigma$ has $1$'s on the diagonal, and each off-diagonal entry is less than $-frac{1}{n-1}$. If we define $x = (1,1,ldots,1)^T$, then we see that $x^T Sigma x < 0$, which contradicts the fact that covariance matrices are positive semi-definite.
answered Dec 11 '18 at 17:25
Marcus MMarcus M
8,7931947
8,7931947
add a comment |
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3035378%2frandom-variables-with-arbitrary-positive-correlation-but-without-arbitrary-negat%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
$begingroup$
Are you sure that your claim is correct ? What if $n = 2$, $X_1 = -X_2$ with variance equal to $1$ ?
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 11 '18 at 15:27
$begingroup$
@dallonsi, it is correct; note the strict inequality in the question, whereas your example has an equality.
$endgroup$
– Marcus M
Dec 11 '18 at 17:21
$begingroup$
yes Marcus, thanks. My mistake
$endgroup$
– dallonsi
Dec 13 '18 at 13:11