Inverse of matrix product
$begingroup$
Let A be an $ntimes n$ matrix and B be an $ntimes m$ matrix with $m<n$ can I use this identity?
$(AB)^{+}=B^+A^{-1}$
I am not sure that this is the right inverse of the product $AB$ if this is correct and works as the inverse of square matrices product can you give me a reference?
Otherwise I need ideas. Thanks
matrices inverse
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let A be an $ntimes n$ matrix and B be an $ntimes m$ matrix with $m<n$ can I use this identity?
$(AB)^{+}=B^+A^{-1}$
I am not sure that this is the right inverse of the product $AB$ if this is correct and works as the inverse of square matrices product can you give me a reference?
Otherwise I need ideas. Thanks
matrices inverse
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
$AB$ is not a square matrix. But you can write $(AB)^+ = B^+ A^+ = B^+ A^{-1}$ if $A$ has an inverse
$endgroup$
– Damien
Jan 4 at 9:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let A be an $ntimes n$ matrix and B be an $ntimes m$ matrix with $m<n$ can I use this identity?
$(AB)^{+}=B^+A^{-1}$
I am not sure that this is the right inverse of the product $AB$ if this is correct and works as the inverse of square matrices product can you give me a reference?
Otherwise I need ideas. Thanks
matrices inverse
$endgroup$
Let A be an $ntimes n$ matrix and B be an $ntimes m$ matrix with $m<n$ can I use this identity?
$(AB)^{+}=B^+A^{-1}$
I am not sure that this is the right inverse of the product $AB$ if this is correct and works as the inverse of square matrices product can you give me a reference?
Otherwise I need ideas. Thanks
matrices inverse
matrices inverse
edited Jan 4 at 14:12
iacopo
asked Jan 4 at 9:02
iacopoiacopo
1127
1127
1
$begingroup$
$AB$ is not a square matrix. But you can write $(AB)^+ = B^+ A^+ = B^+ A^{-1}$ if $A$ has an inverse
$endgroup$
– Damien
Jan 4 at 9:05
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
$AB$ is not a square matrix. But you can write $(AB)^+ = B^+ A^+ = B^+ A^{-1}$ if $A$ has an inverse
$endgroup$
– Damien
Jan 4 at 9:05
1
1
$begingroup$
$AB$ is not a square matrix. But you can write $(AB)^+ = B^+ A^+ = B^+ A^{-1}$ if $A$ has an inverse
$endgroup$
– Damien
Jan 4 at 9:05
$begingroup$
$AB$ is not a square matrix. But you can write $(AB)^+ = B^+ A^+ = B^+ A^{-1}$ if $A$ has an inverse
$endgroup$
– Damien
Jan 4 at 9:05
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
I suppose that you are asking whether $(AB)^{color{red}{+}}=B^+A^{-1}$ rather than whether $(AB)^{color{red}{-1}}=B^+A^{-1}$. As other users have pointed out $AB$ is not a square matrix in general and it makes no sense to talk about $(AB)^{-1}$.
Is $(AB)^+=B^+A^{-1}$? Unfortunately, the answer is no. Out of the four defining properties of Moore-Penrose pseudoinverse, $B^+A^{-1}$ only satisfies three. In particular, $(AB)(AB)^+$ should be Hermitian, but that in general does not hold if you put $B^+A^{-1}$ in place of $(AB)^+$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Correct and thank you
$endgroup$
– iacopo
Jan 4 at 14:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, you cannot do that, since $AB$ is not a square matrix and therefore it has no inverse.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
I suppose that you are asking whether $(AB)^{color{red}{+}}=B^+A^{-1}$ rather than whether $(AB)^{color{red}{-1}}=B^+A^{-1}$. As other users have pointed out $AB$ is not a square matrix in general and it makes no sense to talk about $(AB)^{-1}$.
Is $(AB)^+=B^+A^{-1}$? Unfortunately, the answer is no. Out of the four defining properties of Moore-Penrose pseudoinverse, $B^+A^{-1}$ only satisfies three. In particular, $(AB)(AB)^+$ should be Hermitian, but that in general does not hold if you put $B^+A^{-1}$ in place of $(AB)^+$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Correct and thank you
$endgroup$
– iacopo
Jan 4 at 14:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I suppose that you are asking whether $(AB)^{color{red}{+}}=B^+A^{-1}$ rather than whether $(AB)^{color{red}{-1}}=B^+A^{-1}$. As other users have pointed out $AB$ is not a square matrix in general and it makes no sense to talk about $(AB)^{-1}$.
Is $(AB)^+=B^+A^{-1}$? Unfortunately, the answer is no. Out of the four defining properties of Moore-Penrose pseudoinverse, $B^+A^{-1}$ only satisfies three. In particular, $(AB)(AB)^+$ should be Hermitian, but that in general does not hold if you put $B^+A^{-1}$ in place of $(AB)^+$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Correct and thank you
$endgroup$
– iacopo
Jan 4 at 14:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I suppose that you are asking whether $(AB)^{color{red}{+}}=B^+A^{-1}$ rather than whether $(AB)^{color{red}{-1}}=B^+A^{-1}$. As other users have pointed out $AB$ is not a square matrix in general and it makes no sense to talk about $(AB)^{-1}$.
Is $(AB)^+=B^+A^{-1}$? Unfortunately, the answer is no. Out of the four defining properties of Moore-Penrose pseudoinverse, $B^+A^{-1}$ only satisfies three. In particular, $(AB)(AB)^+$ should be Hermitian, but that in general does not hold if you put $B^+A^{-1}$ in place of $(AB)^+$.
$endgroup$
I suppose that you are asking whether $(AB)^{color{red}{+}}=B^+A^{-1}$ rather than whether $(AB)^{color{red}{-1}}=B^+A^{-1}$. As other users have pointed out $AB$ is not a square matrix in general and it makes no sense to talk about $(AB)^{-1}$.
Is $(AB)^+=B^+A^{-1}$? Unfortunately, the answer is no. Out of the four defining properties of Moore-Penrose pseudoinverse, $B^+A^{-1}$ only satisfies three. In particular, $(AB)(AB)^+$ should be Hermitian, but that in general does not hold if you put $B^+A^{-1}$ in place of $(AB)^+$.
answered Jan 4 at 11:09
user1551user1551
73.4k566128
73.4k566128
$begingroup$
Correct and thank you
$endgroup$
– iacopo
Jan 4 at 14:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Correct and thank you
$endgroup$
– iacopo
Jan 4 at 14:12
$begingroup$
Correct and thank you
$endgroup$
– iacopo
Jan 4 at 14:12
$begingroup$
Correct and thank you
$endgroup$
– iacopo
Jan 4 at 14:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, you cannot do that, since $AB$ is not a square matrix and therefore it has no inverse.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, you cannot do that, since $AB$ is not a square matrix and therefore it has no inverse.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, you cannot do that, since $AB$ is not a square matrix and therefore it has no inverse.
$endgroup$
No, you cannot do that, since $AB$ is not a square matrix and therefore it has no inverse.
answered Jan 4 at 9:05
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
165k22132235
165k22132235
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
$AB$ is not a square matrix. But you can write $(AB)^+ = B^+ A^+ = B^+ A^{-1}$ if $A$ has an inverse
$endgroup$
– Damien
Jan 4 at 9:05