Showing that $f^{-1}$ is not continuous.












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$begingroup$


Let $X$ be the half open interval $[0,2pi)$. Let $Y$ denote the unit circle in the plane.



Let $f$ be the map defined by $f(t)=(cos(t),sin(t))$. I checked that $f$ is continuous and bijective.



Since it is bijective, inverse exist. I want to show that $f^{-1}$ is not continuous at $(1,0)$ using multiple ways(just to check whether I know concepts well or not)




  1. Using compactness. If $f^{-1}$ was continuous then it contradicts the fact that continuous image of a compact set is compact.


  2. $epsilon-delta$ proof. (Idea: If we approach $(1,0)$ from below and above there is a jump from $0$ and $2pi$.)



How to use the most general definition of continuity(that inverse image of open set is open) to show that $f^{-1}$ is not continuous.



Thanks in advance.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $X$ be the half open interval $[0,2pi)$. Let $Y$ denote the unit circle in the plane.



    Let $f$ be the map defined by $f(t)=(cos(t),sin(t))$. I checked that $f$ is continuous and bijective.



    Since it is bijective, inverse exist. I want to show that $f^{-1}$ is not continuous at $(1,0)$ using multiple ways(just to check whether I know concepts well or not)




    1. Using compactness. If $f^{-1}$ was continuous then it contradicts the fact that continuous image of a compact set is compact.


    2. $epsilon-delta$ proof. (Idea: If we approach $(1,0)$ from below and above there is a jump from $0$ and $2pi$.)



    How to use the most general definition of continuity(that inverse image of open set is open) to show that $f^{-1}$ is not continuous.



    Thanks in advance.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $X$ be the half open interval $[0,2pi)$. Let $Y$ denote the unit circle in the plane.



      Let $f$ be the map defined by $f(t)=(cos(t),sin(t))$. I checked that $f$ is continuous and bijective.



      Since it is bijective, inverse exist. I want to show that $f^{-1}$ is not continuous at $(1,0)$ using multiple ways(just to check whether I know concepts well or not)




      1. Using compactness. If $f^{-1}$ was continuous then it contradicts the fact that continuous image of a compact set is compact.


      2. $epsilon-delta$ proof. (Idea: If we approach $(1,0)$ from below and above there is a jump from $0$ and $2pi$.)



      How to use the most general definition of continuity(that inverse image of open set is open) to show that $f^{-1}$ is not continuous.



      Thanks in advance.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $X$ be the half open interval $[0,2pi)$. Let $Y$ denote the unit circle in the plane.



      Let $f$ be the map defined by $f(t)=(cos(t),sin(t))$. I checked that $f$ is continuous and bijective.



      Since it is bijective, inverse exist. I want to show that $f^{-1}$ is not continuous at $(1,0)$ using multiple ways(just to check whether I know concepts well or not)




      1. Using compactness. If $f^{-1}$ was continuous then it contradicts the fact that continuous image of a compact set is compact.


      2. $epsilon-delta$ proof. (Idea: If we approach $(1,0)$ from below and above there is a jump from $0$ and $2pi$.)



      How to use the most general definition of continuity(that inverse image of open set is open) to show that $f^{-1}$ is not continuous.



      Thanks in advance.







      real-analysis continuity






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      asked Jan 4 at 7:34









      StammeringMathematicianStammeringMathematician

      2,5911324




      2,5911324






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Look at a neighbourhood of $0$ in $X=[0,2pi)$, say $U=[0,1)$. Then $f(U)$ is not
          open in $Y$. As $(1,0)in f(U)$ and every neighbourhood of $(1,0)$ in $Y$ contains
          points $(x,y)$ with $y<0$, but $f(U)$ has no such points
          then $U$ is not open.
          You need $f$ to be an open map in order for $f^{-1}$ to be continuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            3












            $begingroup$

            For $0<epsilon <2pi$ not that $(f^{-1}) ^{-1} [0,epsilon)=f([0,epsilon)$ is not open even though $[0,epsilon)$ is open on $[0,2pi)$






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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

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              active

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              active

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              5












              $begingroup$

              Look at a neighbourhood of $0$ in $X=[0,2pi)$, say $U=[0,1)$. Then $f(U)$ is not
              open in $Y$. As $(1,0)in f(U)$ and every neighbourhood of $(1,0)$ in $Y$ contains
              points $(x,y)$ with $y<0$, but $f(U)$ has no such points
              then $U$ is not open.
              You need $f$ to be an open map in order for $f^{-1}$ to be continuous.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                5












                $begingroup$

                Look at a neighbourhood of $0$ in $X=[0,2pi)$, say $U=[0,1)$. Then $f(U)$ is not
                open in $Y$. As $(1,0)in f(U)$ and every neighbourhood of $(1,0)$ in $Y$ contains
                points $(x,y)$ with $y<0$, but $f(U)$ has no such points
                then $U$ is not open.
                You need $f$ to be an open map in order for $f^{-1}$ to be continuous.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  5












                  5








                  5





                  $begingroup$

                  Look at a neighbourhood of $0$ in $X=[0,2pi)$, say $U=[0,1)$. Then $f(U)$ is not
                  open in $Y$. As $(1,0)in f(U)$ and every neighbourhood of $(1,0)$ in $Y$ contains
                  points $(x,y)$ with $y<0$, but $f(U)$ has no such points
                  then $U$ is not open.
                  You need $f$ to be an open map in order for $f^{-1}$ to be continuous.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Look at a neighbourhood of $0$ in $X=[0,2pi)$, say $U=[0,1)$. Then $f(U)$ is not
                  open in $Y$. As $(1,0)in f(U)$ and every neighbourhood of $(1,0)$ in $Y$ contains
                  points $(x,y)$ with $y<0$, but $f(U)$ has no such points
                  then $U$ is not open.
                  You need $f$ to be an open map in order for $f^{-1}$ to be continuous.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 4 at 7:39









                  Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

                  105k1160133




                  105k1160133























                      3












                      $begingroup$

                      For $0<epsilon <2pi$ not that $(f^{-1}) ^{-1} [0,epsilon)=f([0,epsilon)$ is not open even though $[0,epsilon)$ is open on $[0,2pi)$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        3












                        $begingroup$

                        For $0<epsilon <2pi$ not that $(f^{-1}) ^{-1} [0,epsilon)=f([0,epsilon)$ is not open even though $[0,epsilon)$ is open on $[0,2pi)$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          3












                          3








                          3





                          $begingroup$

                          For $0<epsilon <2pi$ not that $(f^{-1}) ^{-1} [0,epsilon)=f([0,epsilon)$ is not open even though $[0,epsilon)$ is open on $[0,2pi)$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          For $0<epsilon <2pi$ not that $(f^{-1}) ^{-1} [0,epsilon)=f([0,epsilon)$ is not open even though $[0,epsilon)$ is open on $[0,2pi)$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 4 at 7:37









                          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

                          64.5k42665




                          64.5k42665






























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