Eigenspaces of an orthogonal projection











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So for an orthogonal projection $P:Vrightarrow U $, the task is to find the eigenvalues and eigenspaces of P.



I have found that $lambda = 0,1$



Then $E_0 = ker(P) = U^{perp}$



but for $E_1$ i'm not sure



$E_1 = ker(P-Id)$



I feel like the solution for this is somewhat trivial and is staring me in the face, but i cant see it



Can anyone explain? thanks










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    What actually do you want to find?
    – Anupam
    Nov 22 at 4:30















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












So for an orthogonal projection $P:Vrightarrow U $, the task is to find the eigenvalues and eigenspaces of P.



I have found that $lambda = 0,1$



Then $E_0 = ker(P) = U^{perp}$



but for $E_1$ i'm not sure



$E_1 = ker(P-Id)$



I feel like the solution for this is somewhat trivial and is staring me in the face, but i cant see it



Can anyone explain? thanks










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    What actually do you want to find?
    – Anupam
    Nov 22 at 4:30













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











So for an orthogonal projection $P:Vrightarrow U $, the task is to find the eigenvalues and eigenspaces of P.



I have found that $lambda = 0,1$



Then $E_0 = ker(P) = U^{perp}$



but for $E_1$ i'm not sure



$E_1 = ker(P-Id)$



I feel like the solution for this is somewhat trivial and is staring me in the face, but i cant see it



Can anyone explain? thanks










share|cite|improve this question













So for an orthogonal projection $P:Vrightarrow U $, the task is to find the eigenvalues and eigenspaces of P.



I have found that $lambda = 0,1$



Then $E_0 = ker(P) = U^{perp}$



but for $E_1$ i'm not sure



$E_1 = ker(P-Id)$



I feel like the solution for this is somewhat trivial and is staring me in the face, but i cant see it



Can anyone explain? thanks







eigenvalues-eigenvectors






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asked Nov 22 at 4:20









big daddy

434




434








  • 1




    What actually do you want to find?
    – Anupam
    Nov 22 at 4:30














  • 1




    What actually do you want to find?
    – Anupam
    Nov 22 at 4:30








1




1




What actually do you want to find?
– Anupam
Nov 22 at 4:30




What actually do you want to find?
– Anupam
Nov 22 at 4:30










2 Answers
2






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Let $x in E_1$. Then, $x=P(x) in P(V)$. Hence, $E_1 subseteq P(V)$.



Let, $y in P(V)$. Then, $y=P(X)$ for some $x in V$. Hence, $P(y)=P^2(x)=P(x)=y$ i.e. $y in E_1$. $therefore P(V) subseteq E_1$.



Combining, we get, $P(V)=E_1$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    $E_1$ can be proved to be the range of P. You'll have to do a bit of work, but it's not too hard to show.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
      2






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      down vote



      accepted










      Let $x in E_1$. Then, $x=P(x) in P(V)$. Hence, $E_1 subseteq P(V)$.



      Let, $y in P(V)$. Then, $y=P(X)$ for some $x in V$. Hence, $P(y)=P^2(x)=P(x)=y$ i.e. $y in E_1$. $therefore P(V) subseteq E_1$.



      Combining, we get, $P(V)=E_1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted










        Let $x in E_1$. Then, $x=P(x) in P(V)$. Hence, $E_1 subseteq P(V)$.



        Let, $y in P(V)$. Then, $y=P(X)$ for some $x in V$. Hence, $P(y)=P^2(x)=P(x)=y$ i.e. $y in E_1$. $therefore P(V) subseteq E_1$.



        Combining, we get, $P(V)=E_1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Let $x in E_1$. Then, $x=P(x) in P(V)$. Hence, $E_1 subseteq P(V)$.



          Let, $y in P(V)$. Then, $y=P(X)$ for some $x in V$. Hence, $P(y)=P^2(x)=P(x)=y$ i.e. $y in E_1$. $therefore P(V) subseteq E_1$.



          Combining, we get, $P(V)=E_1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Let $x in E_1$. Then, $x=P(x) in P(V)$. Hence, $E_1 subseteq P(V)$.



          Let, $y in P(V)$. Then, $y=P(X)$ for some $x in V$. Hence, $P(y)=P^2(x)=P(x)=y$ i.e. $y in E_1$. $therefore P(V) subseteq E_1$.



          Combining, we get, $P(V)=E_1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 22 at 5:51









          SinTan1729

          2,399622




          2,399622






















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              $E_1$ can be proved to be the range of P. You'll have to do a bit of work, but it's not too hard to show.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                $E_1$ can be proved to be the range of P. You'll have to do a bit of work, but it's not too hard to show.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  $E_1$ can be proved to be the range of P. You'll have to do a bit of work, but it's not too hard to show.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  $E_1$ can be proved to be the range of P. You'll have to do a bit of work, but it's not too hard to show.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 22 at 5:05









                  JonathanZ

                  2,089613




                  2,089613






























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