The application $mu^*$ is an outer measure. A proof without the Fubin's Theorem.












6












$begingroup$



Theorem. Let $mathcal{K}subseteq 2^{X}$ a set family such that $emptyset inmathcal{K}$ and be given an application $nucolonmathcal{K}to[0,+infty]$ such that $nu(emptyset)=0$, we define $$mu^*(E)=infleft{sum_{ninmathbb{N}}nu(I_n);middle|;Esubseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}I_n;text{and};{I_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}right},$$
then $mu^*$ is an outer measure.




Proof.(With Fubini's Theorem) We prove that $mu^*$ is $sigma$-subadditive, the other properties are trivial. Let ${E_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq 2^{X}$ a countable set family. We suppose that $mu^*(E_n)<+infty$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, that is for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{n,k}}_{kinmathbb{N}}subseteq mathcal{K}$ such that $E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}$.



Be fixed $varepsilon> 0$. For what has been said above and for the properties of the infimum, for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{n,k}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ such that $$E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}quadtext{and}quadmu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}>sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k}).$$
We observe that $$bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nsubseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}bigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}=bigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}quadtext{and}quad{I_{n,k}}_{n,kinmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}.$$ At this point, in order to apply the definition of $mu^*$, it is necessary to specify that it is equivalent to $$mu^*(E)=infleft{sum_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k});middle|;Esubseteqbigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{n,k};text{and};{I_{n,k}}_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}right}.$$ In general, what is important is that the set $E$ can be covered by a family ${I_gamma}_{gammainGamma}subseteqmathcal{K}$, where $Gamma$ is a countable set of indices. By definition of $mu^*$ we have
begin{equation}
mu^*bigg(bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nbigg)lesum_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k})color{BLUE}{=}sum_{ninmathbb{N}}sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k})<sum_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[nu(I_{n,k})+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]=sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon,
end{equation}

where the blue equal is the Fubini's Theorem.$hspace{9cm}square$



Proof.(Without Fubini's Theorem) Let ${E_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq 2^{X}$ a countable set family. We suppose that $mu^*(E_n)<+infty$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, that is for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{nk}}_{kinmathbb{N}}subseteq mathcal{K}$ such that $E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}$.



Be fixed $varepsilon> 0$. For what has been said above and for the properties of the infimum, for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{nk}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ such that $$E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}quadtext{and}quadmu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}>sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{nk}).$$ Let $fcolonmathbb{N}tomathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}$ be a bijection and we place $I_{n,k}:=I_{nk}$ for all $(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}$. We consider the sequence ${I_{f(r)}}_{rinmathbb{N}}$. We prove that ${I_{f(r)}}_{rinmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ and that is a covering of $bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}} E_n$.We observe that $$bigcup_{rinmathbb{N}}I_{f(r)}= bigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{nk}=bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[bigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}bigg]supseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_n.$$ By definition of $mu^*$ we have $$mu^*bigg(bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nbigg)lesum_{rinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{f(r)}).$$ Now we place $$f(r):=(n_r,k_r)quadtext{and}quad K_r=max{k_1,dots, k_r},$$ and we consider the partial sum s-th. Therefore
begin{equation}
begin{split}
sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})=&nu(I_{f(1)})+cdots+nu(I_{f(s)})\
=&nu(I_{n_1k_1})+cdots+nu(I_{n_sk_s})quadtext{We remember that}quad I_{nk}:=I_{n,k}\
color{RED}{le}& sum_{n=1}^{K_r}color{BLUE}{sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{nk})}\
<&sum_{n=1}^{K_r}bigg[mu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]\
<&sum_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[mu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]\
=&sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon.
end{split}
end{equation}

For $varepsilonto 0$ we have $$sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})lesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n).$$




Question 1. Why is the inequality in red true?




$$$$




Question 2. Could it be that some blue series is divergent?




$$$$



Therefore $$sum_{rinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{f(r)}):=lim_{sto+infty}sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})color{BLUE}{le}sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$$




Question 3. Why is the inequality in blue true? In general if ${a_n}$ and ${b_n}$ are two real number sequence such that $lim a_n=ainmathbb{R}$ and $lim b_n=binmathbb{R}$, then if $a_nle b_n$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, then $a<b$. Is this the case? That is, the series $sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$ is convergent?




Thanks for your patience!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    6












    $begingroup$



    Theorem. Let $mathcal{K}subseteq 2^{X}$ a set family such that $emptyset inmathcal{K}$ and be given an application $nucolonmathcal{K}to[0,+infty]$ such that $nu(emptyset)=0$, we define $$mu^*(E)=infleft{sum_{ninmathbb{N}}nu(I_n);middle|;Esubseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}I_n;text{and};{I_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}right},$$
    then $mu^*$ is an outer measure.




    Proof.(With Fubini's Theorem) We prove that $mu^*$ is $sigma$-subadditive, the other properties are trivial. Let ${E_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq 2^{X}$ a countable set family. We suppose that $mu^*(E_n)<+infty$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, that is for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{n,k}}_{kinmathbb{N}}subseteq mathcal{K}$ such that $E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}$.



    Be fixed $varepsilon> 0$. For what has been said above and for the properties of the infimum, for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{n,k}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ such that $$E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}quadtext{and}quadmu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}>sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k}).$$
    We observe that $$bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nsubseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}bigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}=bigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}quadtext{and}quad{I_{n,k}}_{n,kinmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}.$$ At this point, in order to apply the definition of $mu^*$, it is necessary to specify that it is equivalent to $$mu^*(E)=infleft{sum_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k});middle|;Esubseteqbigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{n,k};text{and};{I_{n,k}}_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}right}.$$ In general, what is important is that the set $E$ can be covered by a family ${I_gamma}_{gammainGamma}subseteqmathcal{K}$, where $Gamma$ is a countable set of indices. By definition of $mu^*$ we have
    begin{equation}
    mu^*bigg(bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nbigg)lesum_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k})color{BLUE}{=}sum_{ninmathbb{N}}sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k})<sum_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[nu(I_{n,k})+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]=sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon,
    end{equation}

    where the blue equal is the Fubini's Theorem.$hspace{9cm}square$



    Proof.(Without Fubini's Theorem) Let ${E_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq 2^{X}$ a countable set family. We suppose that $mu^*(E_n)<+infty$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, that is for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{nk}}_{kinmathbb{N}}subseteq mathcal{K}$ such that $E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}$.



    Be fixed $varepsilon> 0$. For what has been said above and for the properties of the infimum, for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{nk}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ such that $$E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}quadtext{and}quadmu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}>sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{nk}).$$ Let $fcolonmathbb{N}tomathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}$ be a bijection and we place $I_{n,k}:=I_{nk}$ for all $(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}$. We consider the sequence ${I_{f(r)}}_{rinmathbb{N}}$. We prove that ${I_{f(r)}}_{rinmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ and that is a covering of $bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}} E_n$.We observe that $$bigcup_{rinmathbb{N}}I_{f(r)}= bigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{nk}=bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[bigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}bigg]supseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_n.$$ By definition of $mu^*$ we have $$mu^*bigg(bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nbigg)lesum_{rinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{f(r)}).$$ Now we place $$f(r):=(n_r,k_r)quadtext{and}quad K_r=max{k_1,dots, k_r},$$ and we consider the partial sum s-th. Therefore
    begin{equation}
    begin{split}
    sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})=&nu(I_{f(1)})+cdots+nu(I_{f(s)})\
    =&nu(I_{n_1k_1})+cdots+nu(I_{n_sk_s})quadtext{We remember that}quad I_{nk}:=I_{n,k}\
    color{RED}{le}& sum_{n=1}^{K_r}color{BLUE}{sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{nk})}\
    <&sum_{n=1}^{K_r}bigg[mu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]\
    <&sum_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[mu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]\
    =&sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon.
    end{split}
    end{equation}

    For $varepsilonto 0$ we have $$sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})lesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n).$$




    Question 1. Why is the inequality in red true?




    $$$$




    Question 2. Could it be that some blue series is divergent?




    $$$$



    Therefore $$sum_{rinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{f(r)}):=lim_{sto+infty}sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})color{BLUE}{le}sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$$




    Question 3. Why is the inequality in blue true? In general if ${a_n}$ and ${b_n}$ are two real number sequence such that $lim a_n=ainmathbb{R}$ and $lim b_n=binmathbb{R}$, then if $a_nle b_n$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, then $a<b$. Is this the case? That is, the series $sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$ is convergent?




    Thanks for your patience!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      6












      6








      6


      0



      $begingroup$



      Theorem. Let $mathcal{K}subseteq 2^{X}$ a set family such that $emptyset inmathcal{K}$ and be given an application $nucolonmathcal{K}to[0,+infty]$ such that $nu(emptyset)=0$, we define $$mu^*(E)=infleft{sum_{ninmathbb{N}}nu(I_n);middle|;Esubseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}I_n;text{and};{I_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}right},$$
      then $mu^*$ is an outer measure.




      Proof.(With Fubini's Theorem) We prove that $mu^*$ is $sigma$-subadditive, the other properties are trivial. Let ${E_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq 2^{X}$ a countable set family. We suppose that $mu^*(E_n)<+infty$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, that is for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{n,k}}_{kinmathbb{N}}subseteq mathcal{K}$ such that $E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}$.



      Be fixed $varepsilon> 0$. For what has been said above and for the properties of the infimum, for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{n,k}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ such that $$E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}quadtext{and}quadmu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}>sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k}).$$
      We observe that $$bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nsubseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}bigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}=bigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}quadtext{and}quad{I_{n,k}}_{n,kinmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}.$$ At this point, in order to apply the definition of $mu^*$, it is necessary to specify that it is equivalent to $$mu^*(E)=infleft{sum_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k});middle|;Esubseteqbigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{n,k};text{and};{I_{n,k}}_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}right}.$$ In general, what is important is that the set $E$ can be covered by a family ${I_gamma}_{gammainGamma}subseteqmathcal{K}$, where $Gamma$ is a countable set of indices. By definition of $mu^*$ we have
      begin{equation}
      mu^*bigg(bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nbigg)lesum_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k})color{BLUE}{=}sum_{ninmathbb{N}}sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k})<sum_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[nu(I_{n,k})+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]=sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon,
      end{equation}

      where the blue equal is the Fubini's Theorem.$hspace{9cm}square$



      Proof.(Without Fubini's Theorem) Let ${E_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq 2^{X}$ a countable set family. We suppose that $mu^*(E_n)<+infty$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, that is for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{nk}}_{kinmathbb{N}}subseteq mathcal{K}$ such that $E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}$.



      Be fixed $varepsilon> 0$. For what has been said above and for the properties of the infimum, for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{nk}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ such that $$E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}quadtext{and}quadmu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}>sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{nk}).$$ Let $fcolonmathbb{N}tomathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}$ be a bijection and we place $I_{n,k}:=I_{nk}$ for all $(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}$. We consider the sequence ${I_{f(r)}}_{rinmathbb{N}}$. We prove that ${I_{f(r)}}_{rinmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ and that is a covering of $bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}} E_n$.We observe that $$bigcup_{rinmathbb{N}}I_{f(r)}= bigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{nk}=bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[bigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}bigg]supseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_n.$$ By definition of $mu^*$ we have $$mu^*bigg(bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nbigg)lesum_{rinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{f(r)}).$$ Now we place $$f(r):=(n_r,k_r)quadtext{and}quad K_r=max{k_1,dots, k_r},$$ and we consider the partial sum s-th. Therefore
      begin{equation}
      begin{split}
      sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})=&nu(I_{f(1)})+cdots+nu(I_{f(s)})\
      =&nu(I_{n_1k_1})+cdots+nu(I_{n_sk_s})quadtext{We remember that}quad I_{nk}:=I_{n,k}\
      color{RED}{le}& sum_{n=1}^{K_r}color{BLUE}{sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{nk})}\
      <&sum_{n=1}^{K_r}bigg[mu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]\
      <&sum_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[mu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]\
      =&sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon.
      end{split}
      end{equation}

      For $varepsilonto 0$ we have $$sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})lesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n).$$




      Question 1. Why is the inequality in red true?




      $$$$




      Question 2. Could it be that some blue series is divergent?




      $$$$



      Therefore $$sum_{rinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{f(r)}):=lim_{sto+infty}sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})color{BLUE}{le}sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$$




      Question 3. Why is the inequality in blue true? In general if ${a_n}$ and ${b_n}$ are two real number sequence such that $lim a_n=ainmathbb{R}$ and $lim b_n=binmathbb{R}$, then if $a_nle b_n$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, then $a<b$. Is this the case? That is, the series $sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$ is convergent?




      Thanks for your patience!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$





      Theorem. Let $mathcal{K}subseteq 2^{X}$ a set family such that $emptyset inmathcal{K}$ and be given an application $nucolonmathcal{K}to[0,+infty]$ such that $nu(emptyset)=0$, we define $$mu^*(E)=infleft{sum_{ninmathbb{N}}nu(I_n);middle|;Esubseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}I_n;text{and};{I_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}right},$$
      then $mu^*$ is an outer measure.




      Proof.(With Fubini's Theorem) We prove that $mu^*$ is $sigma$-subadditive, the other properties are trivial. Let ${E_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq 2^{X}$ a countable set family. We suppose that $mu^*(E_n)<+infty$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, that is for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{n,k}}_{kinmathbb{N}}subseteq mathcal{K}$ such that $E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}$.



      Be fixed $varepsilon> 0$. For what has been said above and for the properties of the infimum, for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{n,k}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ such that $$E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}quadtext{and}quadmu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}>sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k}).$$
      We observe that $$bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nsubseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}bigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}=bigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{n,k}quadtext{and}quad{I_{n,k}}_{n,kinmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}.$$ At this point, in order to apply the definition of $mu^*$, it is necessary to specify that it is equivalent to $$mu^*(E)=infleft{sum_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k});middle|;Esubseteqbigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{n,k};text{and};{I_{n,k}}_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}right}.$$ In general, what is important is that the set $E$ can be covered by a family ${I_gamma}_{gammainGamma}subseteqmathcal{K}$, where $Gamma$ is a countable set of indices. By definition of $mu^*$ we have
      begin{equation}
      mu^*bigg(bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nbigg)lesum_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k})color{BLUE}{=}sum_{ninmathbb{N}}sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{n,k})<sum_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[nu(I_{n,k})+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]=sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon,
      end{equation}

      where the blue equal is the Fubini's Theorem.$hspace{9cm}square$



      Proof.(Without Fubini's Theorem) Let ${E_n}_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteq 2^{X}$ a countable set family. We suppose that $mu^*(E_n)<+infty$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, that is for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{nk}}_{kinmathbb{N}}subseteq mathcal{K}$ such that $E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}$.



      Be fixed $varepsilon> 0$. For what has been said above and for the properties of the infimum, for all $ninmathbb{N}$ exists ${I_{nk}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ such that $$E_nsubseteqbigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}quadtext{and}quadmu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}>sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{nk}).$$ Let $fcolonmathbb{N}tomathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}$ be a bijection and we place $I_{n,k}:=I_{nk}$ for all $(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}$. We consider the sequence ${I_{f(r)}}_{rinmathbb{N}}$. We prove that ${I_{f(r)}}_{rinmathbb{N}}subseteqmathcal{K}$ and that is a covering of $bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}} E_n$.We observe that $$bigcup_{rinmathbb{N}}I_{f(r)}= bigcup_{(n,k)inmathbb{N}timesmathbb{N}}I_{nk}=bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[bigcup_{kinmathbb{N}}I_{nk}bigg]supseteqbigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_n.$$ By definition of $mu^*$ we have $$mu^*bigg(bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}E_nbigg)lesum_{rinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{f(r)}).$$ Now we place $$f(r):=(n_r,k_r)quadtext{and}quad K_r=max{k_1,dots, k_r},$$ and we consider the partial sum s-th. Therefore
      begin{equation}
      begin{split}
      sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})=&nu(I_{f(1)})+cdots+nu(I_{f(s)})\
      =&nu(I_{n_1k_1})+cdots+nu(I_{n_sk_s})quadtext{We remember that}quad I_{nk}:=I_{n,k}\
      color{RED}{le}& sum_{n=1}^{K_r}color{BLUE}{sum_{kinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{nk})}\
      <&sum_{n=1}^{K_r}bigg[mu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]\
      <&sum_{ninmathbb{N}}bigg[mu^*(E_n)+frac{varepsilon}{2^n}bigg]\
      =&sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon.
      end{split}
      end{equation}

      For $varepsilonto 0$ we have $$sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})lesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n).$$




      Question 1. Why is the inequality in red true?




      $$$$




      Question 2. Could it be that some blue series is divergent?




      $$$$



      Therefore $$sum_{rinmathbb{N}}nu(I_{f(r)}):=lim_{sto+infty}sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})color{BLUE}{le}sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$$




      Question 3. Why is the inequality in blue true? In general if ${a_n}$ and ${b_n}$ are two real number sequence such that $lim a_n=ainmathbb{R}$ and $lim b_n=binmathbb{R}$, then if $a_nle b_n$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, then $a<b$. Is this the case? That is, the series $sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$ is convergent?




      Thanks for your patience!







      measure-theory proof-verification proof-writing proof-explanation






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 26 '18 at 12:20









      Jack J.Jack J.

      4292419




      4292419






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$


          Question 1. Why is the inequality in red true?




          Because if $a_ngeq0$ for all $n $, then for any $k $ you have $a_kleqsum_na_n $.




          Question 2. Could it be that some blue series is divergent?




          No, you assumed that it was bounded above by $mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon/2^n $ and that $mu^*(E_n)<infty $.




          Question 3. Why is the inequality in blue true? In general if ${a_n}$ and ${b_n}$ are two real number sequence such that $lim a_n=ainmathbb{R}$ and $lim b_n=binmathbb{R}$, then if $a_nle b_n$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, then $a<b$. Is this the case? That is, the series $sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$ is convergent?




          Almost. If $a_nleq b_n $ for all $n $, then $aleq b $.



          And no, bounding a series below tells you nothing about its convergence. And it could very well be the case that $mu^*(bigcup_nE_n)=infty $ and $sum_rnu (I_{f (r)}=infty $.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer. So, if we place $a_s:=sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})$, and we have already proved that $a_slesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n):=lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then can we conclude that $lim_{sto+infty} a_slelim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$? Even if we do not know if the term $lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ is finite?
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:04












          • $begingroup$
            I think that I have understand: With the notations of the above comment. The sequence ${a_s}_{sinmathbb{N}}$ is increasing, then $lim_{sto+infty}a_s=sup_s{a_s}$. Now, if the right term is finite we have that $a_sle R$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}le R$, where $Rinmathbb{R}$. If the right term is $+infty$, with the order relation in $bar{mathbb{R}}_+$, we have that $a_sle+infty$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}=+infty.$ Correct?
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:29












          • $begingroup$
            Yes and yes, but you cannot conclude that $sup{a_s}=infty $. It may be finite, for all you know.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:41










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, obviously "$le$". Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:51











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          3












          $begingroup$


          Question 1. Why is the inequality in red true?




          Because if $a_ngeq0$ for all $n $, then for any $k $ you have $a_kleqsum_na_n $.




          Question 2. Could it be that some blue series is divergent?




          No, you assumed that it was bounded above by $mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon/2^n $ and that $mu^*(E_n)<infty $.




          Question 3. Why is the inequality in blue true? In general if ${a_n}$ and ${b_n}$ are two real number sequence such that $lim a_n=ainmathbb{R}$ and $lim b_n=binmathbb{R}$, then if $a_nle b_n$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, then $a<b$. Is this the case? That is, the series $sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$ is convergent?




          Almost. If $a_nleq b_n $ for all $n $, then $aleq b $.



          And no, bounding a series below tells you nothing about its convergence. And it could very well be the case that $mu^*(bigcup_nE_n)=infty $ and $sum_rnu (I_{f (r)}=infty $.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer. So, if we place $a_s:=sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})$, and we have already proved that $a_slesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n):=lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then can we conclude that $lim_{sto+infty} a_slelim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$? Even if we do not know if the term $lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ is finite?
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:04












          • $begingroup$
            I think that I have understand: With the notations of the above comment. The sequence ${a_s}_{sinmathbb{N}}$ is increasing, then $lim_{sto+infty}a_s=sup_s{a_s}$. Now, if the right term is finite we have that $a_sle R$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}le R$, where $Rinmathbb{R}$. If the right term is $+infty$, with the order relation in $bar{mathbb{R}}_+$, we have that $a_sle+infty$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}=+infty.$ Correct?
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:29












          • $begingroup$
            Yes and yes, but you cannot conclude that $sup{a_s}=infty $. It may be finite, for all you know.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:41










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, obviously "$le$". Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:51
















          3












          $begingroup$


          Question 1. Why is the inequality in red true?




          Because if $a_ngeq0$ for all $n $, then for any $k $ you have $a_kleqsum_na_n $.




          Question 2. Could it be that some blue series is divergent?




          No, you assumed that it was bounded above by $mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon/2^n $ and that $mu^*(E_n)<infty $.




          Question 3. Why is the inequality in blue true? In general if ${a_n}$ and ${b_n}$ are two real number sequence such that $lim a_n=ainmathbb{R}$ and $lim b_n=binmathbb{R}$, then if $a_nle b_n$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, then $a<b$. Is this the case? That is, the series $sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$ is convergent?




          Almost. If $a_nleq b_n $ for all $n $, then $aleq b $.



          And no, bounding a series below tells you nothing about its convergence. And it could very well be the case that $mu^*(bigcup_nE_n)=infty $ and $sum_rnu (I_{f (r)}=infty $.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer. So, if we place $a_s:=sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})$, and we have already proved that $a_slesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n):=lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then can we conclude that $lim_{sto+infty} a_slelim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$? Even if we do not know if the term $lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ is finite?
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:04












          • $begingroup$
            I think that I have understand: With the notations of the above comment. The sequence ${a_s}_{sinmathbb{N}}$ is increasing, then $lim_{sto+infty}a_s=sup_s{a_s}$. Now, if the right term is finite we have that $a_sle R$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}le R$, where $Rinmathbb{R}$. If the right term is $+infty$, with the order relation in $bar{mathbb{R}}_+$, we have that $a_sle+infty$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}=+infty.$ Correct?
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:29












          • $begingroup$
            Yes and yes, but you cannot conclude that $sup{a_s}=infty $. It may be finite, for all you know.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:41










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, obviously "$le$". Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:51














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$


          Question 1. Why is the inequality in red true?




          Because if $a_ngeq0$ for all $n $, then for any $k $ you have $a_kleqsum_na_n $.




          Question 2. Could it be that some blue series is divergent?




          No, you assumed that it was bounded above by $mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon/2^n $ and that $mu^*(E_n)<infty $.




          Question 3. Why is the inequality in blue true? In general if ${a_n}$ and ${b_n}$ are two real number sequence such that $lim a_n=ainmathbb{R}$ and $lim b_n=binmathbb{R}$, then if $a_nle b_n$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, then $a<b$. Is this the case? That is, the series $sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$ is convergent?




          Almost. If $a_nleq b_n $ for all $n $, then $aleq b $.



          And no, bounding a series below tells you nothing about its convergence. And it could very well be the case that $mu^*(bigcup_nE_n)=infty $ and $sum_rnu (I_{f (r)}=infty $.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




          Question 1. Why is the inequality in red true?




          Because if $a_ngeq0$ for all $n $, then for any $k $ you have $a_kleqsum_na_n $.




          Question 2. Could it be that some blue series is divergent?




          No, you assumed that it was bounded above by $mu^*(E_n)+varepsilon/2^n $ and that $mu^*(E_n)<infty $.




          Question 3. Why is the inequality in blue true? In general if ${a_n}$ and ${b_n}$ are two real number sequence such that $lim a_n=ainmathbb{R}$ and $lim b_n=binmathbb{R}$, then if $a_nle b_n$ for all $ninmathbb{N}$, then $a<b$. Is this the case? That is, the series $sum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n)$ is convergent?




          Almost. If $a_nleq b_n $ for all $n $, then $aleq b $.



          And no, bounding a series below tells you nothing about its convergence. And it could very well be the case that $mu^*(bigcup_nE_n)=infty $ and $sum_rnu (I_{f (r)}=infty $.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 26 '18 at 13:05









          Martin ArgeramiMartin Argerami

          127k1182183




          127k1182183












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer. So, if we place $a_s:=sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})$, and we have already proved that $a_slesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n):=lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then can we conclude that $lim_{sto+infty} a_slelim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$? Even if we do not know if the term $lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ is finite?
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:04












          • $begingroup$
            I think that I have understand: With the notations of the above comment. The sequence ${a_s}_{sinmathbb{N}}$ is increasing, then $lim_{sto+infty}a_s=sup_s{a_s}$. Now, if the right term is finite we have that $a_sle R$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}le R$, where $Rinmathbb{R}$. If the right term is $+infty$, with the order relation in $bar{mathbb{R}}_+$, we have that $a_sle+infty$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}=+infty.$ Correct?
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:29












          • $begingroup$
            Yes and yes, but you cannot conclude that $sup{a_s}=infty $. It may be finite, for all you know.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:41










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, obviously "$le$". Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:51


















          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for your answer. So, if we place $a_s:=sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})$, and we have already proved that $a_slesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n):=lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then can we conclude that $lim_{sto+infty} a_slelim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$? Even if we do not know if the term $lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ is finite?
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:04












          • $begingroup$
            I think that I have understand: With the notations of the above comment. The sequence ${a_s}_{sinmathbb{N}}$ is increasing, then $lim_{sto+infty}a_s=sup_s{a_s}$. Now, if the right term is finite we have that $a_sle R$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}le R$, where $Rinmathbb{R}$. If the right term is $+infty$, with the order relation in $bar{mathbb{R}}_+$, we have that $a_sle+infty$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}=+infty.$ Correct?
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:29












          • $begingroup$
            Yes and yes, but you cannot conclude that $sup{a_s}=infty $. It may be finite, for all you know.
            $endgroup$
            – Martin Argerami
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:41










          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, obviously "$le$". Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Jack J.
            Dec 26 '18 at 15:51
















          $begingroup$
          Thanks for your answer. So, if we place $a_s:=sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})$, and we have already proved that $a_slesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n):=lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then can we conclude that $lim_{sto+infty} a_slelim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$? Even if we do not know if the term $lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ is finite?
          $endgroup$
          – Jack J.
          Dec 26 '18 at 15:04






          $begingroup$
          Thanks for your answer. So, if we place $a_s:=sum_{r=1}^s nu(I_{f(r)})$, and we have already proved that $a_slesum_{ninmathbb{N}}mu^*(E_n):=lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then can we conclude that $lim_{sto+infty} a_slelim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$? Even if we do not know if the term $lim_{kto+infty}sum_{n=1}^kmu^*(E_k)$ is finite?
          $endgroup$
          – Jack J.
          Dec 26 '18 at 15:04














          $begingroup$
          I think that I have understand: With the notations of the above comment. The sequence ${a_s}_{sinmathbb{N}}$ is increasing, then $lim_{sto+infty}a_s=sup_s{a_s}$. Now, if the right term is finite we have that $a_sle R$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}le R$, where $Rinmathbb{R}$. If the right term is $+infty$, with the order relation in $bar{mathbb{R}}_+$, we have that $a_sle+infty$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}=+infty.$ Correct?
          $endgroup$
          – Jack J.
          Dec 26 '18 at 15:29






          $begingroup$
          I think that I have understand: With the notations of the above comment. The sequence ${a_s}_{sinmathbb{N}}$ is increasing, then $lim_{sto+infty}a_s=sup_s{a_s}$. Now, if the right term is finite we have that $a_sle R$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}le R$, where $Rinmathbb{R}$. If the right term is $+infty$, with the order relation in $bar{mathbb{R}}_+$, we have that $a_sle+infty$ for all $sinmathbb{N}$, then $sup_s{a_s}=+infty.$ Correct?
          $endgroup$
          – Jack J.
          Dec 26 '18 at 15:29














          $begingroup$
          Yes and yes, but you cannot conclude that $sup{a_s}=infty $. It may be finite, for all you know.
          $endgroup$
          – Martin Argerami
          Dec 26 '18 at 15:41




          $begingroup$
          Yes and yes, but you cannot conclude that $sup{a_s}=infty $. It may be finite, for all you know.
          $endgroup$
          – Martin Argerami
          Dec 26 '18 at 15:41












          $begingroup$
          Sorry, obviously "$le$". Thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Jack J.
          Dec 26 '18 at 15:51




          $begingroup$
          Sorry, obviously "$le$". Thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Jack J.
          Dec 26 '18 at 15:51


















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