If $f$ has no non trivial fixed points and $fcirc f$ is the identity then $f(x)=x^{-1}$ and $G$ is abelian...












9












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This question already has an answer here:




  • Finite $G$ with involutory automorphism $alpha$ with no nontrivial fixed points. Proving properties of $alpha$.

    1 answer





Let $f$ be an automorphism of the finite group $G$ such that $fcirc f=id$ and $f(x)=ximplies x=e$



Prove that $f(x)=x^{-1}~forall xin G$




If we can prove that $f(x)$ and $x$ commute for any given $xin G$ then we're done with the proof because it would imply



$$xf(x)=f(x)x$$



$$f(f(x))f(x)=f(x)x$$



Because $fcirc f=id$. And since $f$ is a homomorphism:
$$f(f(x)x)=f(x)ximplies f(x)x=eimplies f(x)=x^{-1}$$



I don't know how to proceed



The fact that $G$ is abelian can be deduced once we have $f(x)=x^{-1}$ because that function is a homomorphism if and only if $G$ is abelian










share|cite|improve this question











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marked as duplicate by Derek Holt finite-groups
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Dec 22 '18 at 10:36


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – user8268
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:36
















9












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Finite $G$ with involutory automorphism $alpha$ with no nontrivial fixed points. Proving properties of $alpha$.

    1 answer





Let $f$ be an automorphism of the finite group $G$ such that $fcirc f=id$ and $f(x)=ximplies x=e$



Prove that $f(x)=x^{-1}~forall xin G$




If we can prove that $f(x)$ and $x$ commute for any given $xin G$ then we're done with the proof because it would imply



$$xf(x)=f(x)x$$



$$f(f(x))f(x)=f(x)x$$



Because $fcirc f=id$. And since $f$ is a homomorphism:
$$f(f(x)x)=f(x)ximplies f(x)x=eimplies f(x)=x^{-1}$$



I don't know how to proceed



The fact that $G$ is abelian can be deduced once we have $f(x)=x^{-1}$ because that function is a homomorphism if and only if $G$ is abelian










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Derek Holt finite-groups
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Dec 22 '18 at 10:36


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – user8268
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:36














9












9








9


3



$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Finite $G$ with involutory automorphism $alpha$ with no nontrivial fixed points. Proving properties of $alpha$.

    1 answer





Let $f$ be an automorphism of the finite group $G$ such that $fcirc f=id$ and $f(x)=ximplies x=e$



Prove that $f(x)=x^{-1}~forall xin G$




If we can prove that $f(x)$ and $x$ commute for any given $xin G$ then we're done with the proof because it would imply



$$xf(x)=f(x)x$$



$$f(f(x))f(x)=f(x)x$$



Because $fcirc f=id$. And since $f$ is a homomorphism:
$$f(f(x)x)=f(x)ximplies f(x)x=eimplies f(x)=x^{-1}$$



I don't know how to proceed



The fact that $G$ is abelian can be deduced once we have $f(x)=x^{-1}$ because that function is a homomorphism if and only if $G$ is abelian










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Finite $G$ with involutory automorphism $alpha$ with no nontrivial fixed points. Proving properties of $alpha$.

    1 answer





Let $f$ be an automorphism of the finite group $G$ such that $fcirc f=id$ and $f(x)=ximplies x=e$



Prove that $f(x)=x^{-1}~forall xin G$




If we can prove that $f(x)$ and $x$ commute for any given $xin G$ then we're done with the proof because it would imply



$$xf(x)=f(x)x$$



$$f(f(x))f(x)=f(x)x$$



Because $fcirc f=id$. And since $f$ is a homomorphism:
$$f(f(x)x)=f(x)ximplies f(x)x=eimplies f(x)=x^{-1}$$



I don't know how to proceed



The fact that $G$ is abelian can be deduced once we have $f(x)=x^{-1}$ because that function is a homomorphism if and only if $G$ is abelian





This question already has an answer here:




  • Finite $G$ with involutory automorphism $alpha$ with no nontrivial fixed points. Proving properties of $alpha$.

    1 answer








group-theory finite-groups group-homomorphism automorphism-group involutions






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 22 '18 at 9:56









Chinnapparaj R

5,5072928




5,5072928










asked Dec 22 '18 at 8:20









John CataldoJohn Cataldo

1,1831316




1,1831316




marked as duplicate by Derek Holt finite-groups
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Dec 22 '18 at 10:36


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by Derek Holt finite-groups
Users with the  finite-groups badge can single-handedly close finite-groups questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

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Dec 22 '18 at 10:36


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.










  • 1




    $begingroup$
    see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – user8268
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:36














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
    $endgroup$
    – user8268
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:36








1




1




$begingroup$
see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– user8268
Dec 22 '18 at 9:36




$begingroup$
see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– user8268
Dec 22 '18 at 9:36










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$


Exercise: Let $G$ be a finite group , $f$ an automorphism of $G$ with $f(x) =x iff x=e$. Prove that every $g in G$ can be written as $$g=x^{-1}f(x)$$




Proof : Define $alpha:G to G$ by $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)$. Use the hypothesis to prove $alpha$ is one one. That is, $$alpha(x)=alpha(y) Longrightarrow x^{-1}f(x)=y^{-1}f(y)$$ $$hspace{2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=f(yx^{-1})$$



$$hspace{2.2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=e;;text{by hyp}$$



$$Longrightarrow y=x$$



Finiteness implies $alpha$ is onto as well. Onto means, for every $g in G$, there exist $x in G$ such that $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)=g$ $;blacksquare$





Proof of your result: $$f(g)=fBig(x^{-1}f(x)Big)=f(x^{-1})f^2(x)=f(x^{-1})x=Big[x^{-1}f(x)Big]^{-1}=g^{-1}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
    $endgroup$
    – Lozenges
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:43










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! .......
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:45










  • $begingroup$
    Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
    $endgroup$
    – John Cataldo
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:49






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:51










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
    $endgroup$
    – John Cataldo
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:53


















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









4












$begingroup$


Exercise: Let $G$ be a finite group , $f$ an automorphism of $G$ with $f(x) =x iff x=e$. Prove that every $g in G$ can be written as $$g=x^{-1}f(x)$$




Proof : Define $alpha:G to G$ by $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)$. Use the hypothesis to prove $alpha$ is one one. That is, $$alpha(x)=alpha(y) Longrightarrow x^{-1}f(x)=y^{-1}f(y)$$ $$hspace{2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=f(yx^{-1})$$



$$hspace{2.2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=e;;text{by hyp}$$



$$Longrightarrow y=x$$



Finiteness implies $alpha$ is onto as well. Onto means, for every $g in G$, there exist $x in G$ such that $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)=g$ $;blacksquare$





Proof of your result: $$f(g)=fBig(x^{-1}f(x)Big)=f(x^{-1})f^2(x)=f(x^{-1})x=Big[x^{-1}f(x)Big]^{-1}=g^{-1}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
    $endgroup$
    – Lozenges
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:43










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! .......
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:45










  • $begingroup$
    Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
    $endgroup$
    – John Cataldo
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:49






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:51










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
    $endgroup$
    – John Cataldo
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:53
















4












$begingroup$


Exercise: Let $G$ be a finite group , $f$ an automorphism of $G$ with $f(x) =x iff x=e$. Prove that every $g in G$ can be written as $$g=x^{-1}f(x)$$




Proof : Define $alpha:G to G$ by $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)$. Use the hypothesis to prove $alpha$ is one one. That is, $$alpha(x)=alpha(y) Longrightarrow x^{-1}f(x)=y^{-1}f(y)$$ $$hspace{2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=f(yx^{-1})$$



$$hspace{2.2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=e;;text{by hyp}$$



$$Longrightarrow y=x$$



Finiteness implies $alpha$ is onto as well. Onto means, for every $g in G$, there exist $x in G$ such that $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)=g$ $;blacksquare$





Proof of your result: $$f(g)=fBig(x^{-1}f(x)Big)=f(x^{-1})f^2(x)=f(x^{-1})x=Big[x^{-1}f(x)Big]^{-1}=g^{-1}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
    $endgroup$
    – Lozenges
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:43










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! .......
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:45










  • $begingroup$
    Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
    $endgroup$
    – John Cataldo
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:49






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:51










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
    $endgroup$
    – John Cataldo
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:53














4












4








4





$begingroup$


Exercise: Let $G$ be a finite group , $f$ an automorphism of $G$ with $f(x) =x iff x=e$. Prove that every $g in G$ can be written as $$g=x^{-1}f(x)$$




Proof : Define $alpha:G to G$ by $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)$. Use the hypothesis to prove $alpha$ is one one. That is, $$alpha(x)=alpha(y) Longrightarrow x^{-1}f(x)=y^{-1}f(y)$$ $$hspace{2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=f(yx^{-1})$$



$$hspace{2.2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=e;;text{by hyp}$$



$$Longrightarrow y=x$$



Finiteness implies $alpha$ is onto as well. Onto means, for every $g in G$, there exist $x in G$ such that $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)=g$ $;blacksquare$





Proof of your result: $$f(g)=fBig(x^{-1}f(x)Big)=f(x^{-1})f^2(x)=f(x^{-1})x=Big[x^{-1}f(x)Big]^{-1}=g^{-1}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$




Exercise: Let $G$ be a finite group , $f$ an automorphism of $G$ with $f(x) =x iff x=e$. Prove that every $g in G$ can be written as $$g=x^{-1}f(x)$$




Proof : Define $alpha:G to G$ by $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)$. Use the hypothesis to prove $alpha$ is one one. That is, $$alpha(x)=alpha(y) Longrightarrow x^{-1}f(x)=y^{-1}f(y)$$ $$hspace{2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=f(yx^{-1})$$



$$hspace{2.2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=e;;text{by hyp}$$



$$Longrightarrow y=x$$



Finiteness implies $alpha$ is onto as well. Onto means, for every $g in G$, there exist $x in G$ such that $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)=g$ $;blacksquare$





Proof of your result: $$f(g)=fBig(x^{-1}f(x)Big)=f(x^{-1})f^2(x)=f(x^{-1})x=Big[x^{-1}f(x)Big]^{-1}=g^{-1}$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 22 '18 at 9:54

























answered Dec 22 '18 at 9:30









Chinnapparaj RChinnapparaj R

5,5072928




5,5072928












  • $begingroup$
    another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
    $endgroup$
    – Lozenges
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:43










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! .......
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:45










  • $begingroup$
    Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
    $endgroup$
    – John Cataldo
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:49






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:51










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
    $endgroup$
    – John Cataldo
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:53


















  • $begingroup$
    another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
    $endgroup$
    – Lozenges
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:43










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! .......
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:45










  • $begingroup$
    Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
    $endgroup$
    – John Cataldo
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:49






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:51










  • $begingroup$
    Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
    $endgroup$
    – John Cataldo
    Dec 22 '18 at 9:53
















$begingroup$
another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
$endgroup$
– Lozenges
Dec 22 '18 at 9:43




$begingroup$
another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
$endgroup$
– Lozenges
Dec 22 '18 at 9:43












$begingroup$
Thanks! .......
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:45




$begingroup$
Thanks! .......
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:45












$begingroup$
Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:49




$begingroup$
Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:49




1




1




$begingroup$
A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:51




$begingroup$
A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:51












$begingroup$
Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:53




$begingroup$
Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:53



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