If $f$ has no non trivial fixed points and $fcirc f$ is the identity then $f(x)=x^{-1}$ and $G$ is abelian...
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This question already has an answer here:
Finite $G$ with involutory automorphism $alpha$ with no nontrivial fixed points. Proving properties of $alpha$.
1 answer
Let $f$ be an automorphism of the finite group $G$ such that $fcirc f=id$ and $f(x)=ximplies x=e$
Prove that $f(x)=x^{-1}~forall xin G$
If we can prove that $f(x)$ and $x$ commute for any given $xin G$ then we're done with the proof because it would imply
$$xf(x)=f(x)x$$
$$f(f(x))f(x)=f(x)x$$
Because $fcirc f=id$. And since $f$ is a homomorphism:
$$f(f(x)x)=f(x)ximplies f(x)x=eimplies f(x)=x^{-1}$$
I don't know how to proceed
The fact that $G$ is abelian can be deduced once we have $f(x)=x^{-1}$ because that function is a homomorphism if and only if $G$ is abelian
group-theory finite-groups group-homomorphism automorphism-group involutions
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marked as duplicate by Derek Holt
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Dec 22 '18 at 10:36
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
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This question already has an answer here:
Finite $G$ with involutory automorphism $alpha$ with no nontrivial fixed points. Proving properties of $alpha$.
1 answer
Let $f$ be an automorphism of the finite group $G$ such that $fcirc f=id$ and $f(x)=ximplies x=e$
Prove that $f(x)=x^{-1}~forall xin G$
If we can prove that $f(x)$ and $x$ commute for any given $xin G$ then we're done with the proof because it would imply
$$xf(x)=f(x)x$$
$$f(f(x))f(x)=f(x)x$$
Because $fcirc f=id$. And since $f$ is a homomorphism:
$$f(f(x)x)=f(x)ximplies f(x)x=eimplies f(x)=x^{-1}$$
I don't know how to proceed
The fact that $G$ is abelian can be deduced once we have $f(x)=x^{-1}$ because that function is a homomorphism if and only if $G$ is abelian
group-theory finite-groups group-homomorphism automorphism-group involutions
$endgroup$
marked as duplicate by Derek Holt
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Dec 22 '18 at 10:36
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
1
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see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
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– user8268
Dec 22 '18 at 9:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This question already has an answer here:
Finite $G$ with involutory automorphism $alpha$ with no nontrivial fixed points. Proving properties of $alpha$.
1 answer
Let $f$ be an automorphism of the finite group $G$ such that $fcirc f=id$ and $f(x)=ximplies x=e$
Prove that $f(x)=x^{-1}~forall xin G$
If we can prove that $f(x)$ and $x$ commute for any given $xin G$ then we're done with the proof because it would imply
$$xf(x)=f(x)x$$
$$f(f(x))f(x)=f(x)x$$
Because $fcirc f=id$. And since $f$ is a homomorphism:
$$f(f(x)x)=f(x)ximplies f(x)x=eimplies f(x)=x^{-1}$$
I don't know how to proceed
The fact that $G$ is abelian can be deduced once we have $f(x)=x^{-1}$ because that function is a homomorphism if and only if $G$ is abelian
group-theory finite-groups group-homomorphism automorphism-group involutions
$endgroup$
This question already has an answer here:
Finite $G$ with involutory automorphism $alpha$ with no nontrivial fixed points. Proving properties of $alpha$.
1 answer
Let $f$ be an automorphism of the finite group $G$ such that $fcirc f=id$ and $f(x)=ximplies x=e$
Prove that $f(x)=x^{-1}~forall xin G$
If we can prove that $f(x)$ and $x$ commute for any given $xin G$ then we're done with the proof because it would imply
$$xf(x)=f(x)x$$
$$f(f(x))f(x)=f(x)x$$
Because $fcirc f=id$. And since $f$ is a homomorphism:
$$f(f(x)x)=f(x)ximplies f(x)x=eimplies f(x)=x^{-1}$$
I don't know how to proceed
The fact that $G$ is abelian can be deduced once we have $f(x)=x^{-1}$ because that function is a homomorphism if and only if $G$ is abelian
This question already has an answer here:
Finite $G$ with involutory automorphism $alpha$ with no nontrivial fixed points. Proving properties of $alpha$.
1 answer
group-theory finite-groups group-homomorphism automorphism-group involutions
group-theory finite-groups group-homomorphism automorphism-group involutions
edited Dec 22 '18 at 9:56
Chinnapparaj R
5,5072928
5,5072928
asked Dec 22 '18 at 8:20
John CataldoJohn Cataldo
1,1831316
1,1831316
marked as duplicate by Derek Holt
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Dec 22 '18 at 10:36
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
marked as duplicate by Derek Holt
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Dec 22 '18 at 10:36
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
1
$begingroup$
see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– user8268
Dec 22 '18 at 9:36
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– user8268
Dec 22 '18 at 9:36
1
1
$begingroup$
see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– user8268
Dec 22 '18 at 9:36
$begingroup$
see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– user8268
Dec 22 '18 at 9:36
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
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Exercise: Let $G$ be a finite group , $f$ an automorphism of $G$ with $f(x) =x iff x=e$. Prove that every $g in G$ can be written as $$g=x^{-1}f(x)$$
Proof : Define $alpha:G to G$ by $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)$. Use the hypothesis to prove $alpha$ is one one. That is, $$alpha(x)=alpha(y) Longrightarrow x^{-1}f(x)=y^{-1}f(y)$$ $$hspace{2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=f(yx^{-1})$$
$$hspace{2.2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=e;;text{by hyp}$$
$$Longrightarrow y=x$$
Finiteness implies $alpha$ is onto as well. Onto means, for every $g in G$, there exist $x in G$ such that $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)=g$ $;blacksquare$
Proof of your result: $$f(g)=fBig(x^{-1}f(x)Big)=f(x^{-1})f^2(x)=f(x^{-1})x=Big[x^{-1}f(x)Big]^{-1}=g^{-1}$$
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another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
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– Lozenges
Dec 22 '18 at 9:43
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Thanks! .......
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:45
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Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
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– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:49
1
$begingroup$
A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:51
$begingroup$
Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:53
|
show 4 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Exercise: Let $G$ be a finite group , $f$ an automorphism of $G$ with $f(x) =x iff x=e$. Prove that every $g in G$ can be written as $$g=x^{-1}f(x)$$
Proof : Define $alpha:G to G$ by $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)$. Use the hypothesis to prove $alpha$ is one one. That is, $$alpha(x)=alpha(y) Longrightarrow x^{-1}f(x)=y^{-1}f(y)$$ $$hspace{2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=f(yx^{-1})$$
$$hspace{2.2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=e;;text{by hyp}$$
$$Longrightarrow y=x$$
Finiteness implies $alpha$ is onto as well. Onto means, for every $g in G$, there exist $x in G$ such that $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)=g$ $;blacksquare$
Proof of your result: $$f(g)=fBig(x^{-1}f(x)Big)=f(x^{-1})f^2(x)=f(x^{-1})x=Big[x^{-1}f(x)Big]^{-1}=g^{-1}$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
$endgroup$
– Lozenges
Dec 22 '18 at 9:43
$begingroup$
Thanks! .......
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:45
$begingroup$
Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:49
1
$begingroup$
A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:51
$begingroup$
Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:53
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
Exercise: Let $G$ be a finite group , $f$ an automorphism of $G$ with $f(x) =x iff x=e$. Prove that every $g in G$ can be written as $$g=x^{-1}f(x)$$
Proof : Define $alpha:G to G$ by $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)$. Use the hypothesis to prove $alpha$ is one one. That is, $$alpha(x)=alpha(y) Longrightarrow x^{-1}f(x)=y^{-1}f(y)$$ $$hspace{2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=f(yx^{-1})$$
$$hspace{2.2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=e;;text{by hyp}$$
$$Longrightarrow y=x$$
Finiteness implies $alpha$ is onto as well. Onto means, for every $g in G$, there exist $x in G$ such that $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)=g$ $;blacksquare$
Proof of your result: $$f(g)=fBig(x^{-1}f(x)Big)=f(x^{-1})f^2(x)=f(x^{-1})x=Big[x^{-1}f(x)Big]^{-1}=g^{-1}$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
$endgroup$
– Lozenges
Dec 22 '18 at 9:43
$begingroup$
Thanks! .......
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:45
$begingroup$
Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:49
1
$begingroup$
A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:51
$begingroup$
Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:53
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
Exercise: Let $G$ be a finite group , $f$ an automorphism of $G$ with $f(x) =x iff x=e$. Prove that every $g in G$ can be written as $$g=x^{-1}f(x)$$
Proof : Define $alpha:G to G$ by $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)$. Use the hypothesis to prove $alpha$ is one one. That is, $$alpha(x)=alpha(y) Longrightarrow x^{-1}f(x)=y^{-1}f(y)$$ $$hspace{2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=f(yx^{-1})$$
$$hspace{2.2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=e;;text{by hyp}$$
$$Longrightarrow y=x$$
Finiteness implies $alpha$ is onto as well. Onto means, for every $g in G$, there exist $x in G$ such that $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)=g$ $;blacksquare$
Proof of your result: $$f(g)=fBig(x^{-1}f(x)Big)=f(x^{-1})f^2(x)=f(x^{-1})x=Big[x^{-1}f(x)Big]^{-1}=g^{-1}$$
$endgroup$
Exercise: Let $G$ be a finite group , $f$ an automorphism of $G$ with $f(x) =x iff x=e$. Prove that every $g in G$ can be written as $$g=x^{-1}f(x)$$
Proof : Define $alpha:G to G$ by $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)$. Use the hypothesis to prove $alpha$ is one one. That is, $$alpha(x)=alpha(y) Longrightarrow x^{-1}f(x)=y^{-1}f(y)$$ $$hspace{2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=f(yx^{-1})$$
$$hspace{2.2cm}Longrightarrow yx^{-1}=e;;text{by hyp}$$
$$Longrightarrow y=x$$
Finiteness implies $alpha$ is onto as well. Onto means, for every $g in G$, there exist $x in G$ such that $alpha(x)=x^{-1}f(x)=g$ $;blacksquare$
Proof of your result: $$f(g)=fBig(x^{-1}f(x)Big)=f(x^{-1})f^2(x)=f(x^{-1})x=Big[x^{-1}f(x)Big]^{-1}=g^{-1}$$
edited Dec 22 '18 at 9:54
answered Dec 22 '18 at 9:30
Chinnapparaj RChinnapparaj R
5,5072928
5,5072928
$begingroup$
another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
$endgroup$
– Lozenges
Dec 22 '18 at 9:43
$begingroup$
Thanks! .......
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:45
$begingroup$
Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:49
1
$begingroup$
A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:51
$begingroup$
Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:53
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
$endgroup$
– Lozenges
Dec 22 '18 at 9:43
$begingroup$
Thanks! .......
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:45
$begingroup$
Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:49
1
$begingroup$
A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:51
$begingroup$
Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:53
$begingroup$
another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
$endgroup$
– Lozenges
Dec 22 '18 at 9:43
$begingroup$
another correction in the statement of the exercise: $f(x) =x iff x=e$
$endgroup$
– Lozenges
Dec 22 '18 at 9:43
$begingroup$
Thanks! .......
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:45
$begingroup$
Thanks! .......
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:45
$begingroup$
Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:49
$begingroup$
Why does the finiteness of $G$ imply that $alpha$ is onto?
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:49
1
1
$begingroup$
A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:51
$begingroup$
A one one map from a finite set to itself is onto as well. see math.stackexchange.com/questions/366146/…
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 22 '18 at 9:51
$begingroup$
Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:53
$begingroup$
Yeah I mean onto is a property of being 1 to 1. But here we have to prove the 1 to 1 property by showing that it's both into and onto, so why is it onto? (without using that it's 1 to 1, because that's what we are trying to prove)
$endgroup$
– John Cataldo
Dec 22 '18 at 9:53
|
show 4 more comments
1
$begingroup$
see groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
$endgroup$
– user8268
Dec 22 '18 at 9:36