What's the value of $sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}$?












36












$begingroup$


For some series, it is easy to say whether it is convergent or not by the "convergence test", e.g., ratio test. However, it is nontrivial to calculate the value of the sum when the series converges. The question is motivated from the simple exercise to determining whether the series $sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}$ is convergent. One may immediately get that it is convergent by the ratio test. So here is my question:




What's the value of $$sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}?$$











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    36












    $begingroup$


    For some series, it is easy to say whether it is convergent or not by the "convergence test", e.g., ratio test. However, it is nontrivial to calculate the value of the sum when the series converges. The question is motivated from the simple exercise to determining whether the series $sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}$ is convergent. One may immediately get that it is convergent by the ratio test. So here is my question:




    What's the value of $$sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}?$$











    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      36












      36








      36


      19



      $begingroup$


      For some series, it is easy to say whether it is convergent or not by the "convergence test", e.g., ratio test. However, it is nontrivial to calculate the value of the sum when the series converges. The question is motivated from the simple exercise to determining whether the series $sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}$ is convergent. One may immediately get that it is convergent by the ratio test. So here is my question:




      What's the value of $$sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}?$$











      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      For some series, it is easy to say whether it is convergent or not by the "convergence test", e.g., ratio test. However, it is nontrivial to calculate the value of the sum when the series converges. The question is motivated from the simple exercise to determining whether the series $sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}$ is convergent. One may immediately get that it is convergent by the ratio test. So here is my question:




      What's the value of $$sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}?$$








      calculus real-analysis sequences-and-series exponential-function factorial






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      edited Apr 16 '17 at 16:42









      Martin Sleziak

      44.7k10118272




      44.7k10118272










      asked Jun 8 '11 at 15:33









      JackJack

      1




      1






















          5 Answers
          5






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          51












          $begingroup$

          The sum is equal to $2e$. First of all, the term $k^2/k!$ may be partly canceled as $k/(k-1)!$. Second, this can be written as $(k-1+1)/(k-1)!$. The term $k-1+1$ is divided to two terms. In the first term, the $k-1$ may be canceled again, giving us $e$. The second term leads to $e$ immediately. So the total sum is $2exp(1)$.



          In a similar way, one may easily calculate the sum even if $k^2$ is replaced by $k^n$, any positive integer power of $k$. The result is always a multiple of $e$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            52












            $begingroup$

            The value of $T_n := displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^n}{k!}$ is $B_n cdot e$, where $B_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Bell number.



            To see this, note that



            $$begin{align}
            T_{n+1} = sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^{n+1}}{k!} &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{(k+1)^n}{k!}
            \
            &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k!} sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} k^j
            \
            &= sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^j}{k!}
            \
            &= sum_{j=0}^{n} {n choose j} T_j
            end{align}$$



            This is precisely the recursion formula that the Bell numbers follow, except that every term here is being multiplied by $e$.



            Edit: I was unaware at the time I posted my answer, but the argument I gave goes by the name of Dobiński's formula.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$





















              24












              $begingroup$

              Wolfram Alpha says it is $2e$. Another derivation is to start with $e^x=sum limits_{n=0}^infty frac{x^n}{n!}$, apply $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$ to both sides, and evaluate at $x=1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$









              • 2




                $begingroup$
                $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
                $endgroup$
                – Jack
                Jun 8 '11 at 17:46






              • 14




                $begingroup$
                It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
                $endgroup$
                – GEdgar
                Jun 8 '11 at 17:54



















              17












              $begingroup$

              Hint 1: $k^2=k(k-1)+k$. Hint 2: simplify the fractions $k(k-1)/k!$ and $k/k!$. Hint 3: write the series expansion around $x=0$ of the function $xmapstoexp(x)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$





















                6












                $begingroup$

                A basic technique in real (complex) analysis is term by term differentiation of power series:



                $$
                e^z=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{z^k}{k!},quad e^z=(e^z)'=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{z^{k-1}}{k!},quad
                e^z=(e^z)''=sum_{k=1}^infty k(k-1)frac{z^{k-2}}{k!}.
                $$
                Evaluating at $z=1$, one immediately has
                $$
                e=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{k!},quad e=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{1}{k!},quad
                e=sum_{k=1}^infty (k^2-k)frac{1}{k!}.
                $$
                Combining the second and third equalities, we have the answer.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$













                  Your Answer





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                  5 Answers
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                  51












                  $begingroup$

                  The sum is equal to $2e$. First of all, the term $k^2/k!$ may be partly canceled as $k/(k-1)!$. Second, this can be written as $(k-1+1)/(k-1)!$. The term $k-1+1$ is divided to two terms. In the first term, the $k-1$ may be canceled again, giving us $e$. The second term leads to $e$ immediately. So the total sum is $2exp(1)$.



                  In a similar way, one may easily calculate the sum even if $k^2$ is replaced by $k^n$, any positive integer power of $k$. The result is always a multiple of $e$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$


















                    51












                    $begingroup$

                    The sum is equal to $2e$. First of all, the term $k^2/k!$ may be partly canceled as $k/(k-1)!$. Second, this can be written as $(k-1+1)/(k-1)!$. The term $k-1+1$ is divided to two terms. In the first term, the $k-1$ may be canceled again, giving us $e$. The second term leads to $e$ immediately. So the total sum is $2exp(1)$.



                    In a similar way, one may easily calculate the sum even if $k^2$ is replaced by $k^n$, any positive integer power of $k$. The result is always a multiple of $e$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$
















                      51












                      51








                      51





                      $begingroup$

                      The sum is equal to $2e$. First of all, the term $k^2/k!$ may be partly canceled as $k/(k-1)!$. Second, this can be written as $(k-1+1)/(k-1)!$. The term $k-1+1$ is divided to two terms. In the first term, the $k-1$ may be canceled again, giving us $e$. The second term leads to $e$ immediately. So the total sum is $2exp(1)$.



                      In a similar way, one may easily calculate the sum even if $k^2$ is replaced by $k^n$, any positive integer power of $k$. The result is always a multiple of $e$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      The sum is equal to $2e$. First of all, the term $k^2/k!$ may be partly canceled as $k/(k-1)!$. Second, this can be written as $(k-1+1)/(k-1)!$. The term $k-1+1$ is divided to two terms. In the first term, the $k-1$ may be canceled again, giving us $e$. The second term leads to $e$ immediately. So the total sum is $2exp(1)$.



                      In a similar way, one may easily calculate the sum even if $k^2$ is replaced by $k^n$, any positive integer power of $k$. The result is always a multiple of $e$.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Jun 8 '11 at 15:38









                      Luboš MotlLuboš Motl

                      7,05611625




                      7,05611625























                          52












                          $begingroup$

                          The value of $T_n := displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^n}{k!}$ is $B_n cdot e$, where $B_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Bell number.



                          To see this, note that



                          $$begin{align}
                          T_{n+1} = sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^{n+1}}{k!} &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{(k+1)^n}{k!}
                          \
                          &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k!} sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} k^j
                          \
                          &= sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^j}{k!}
                          \
                          &= sum_{j=0}^{n} {n choose j} T_j
                          end{align}$$



                          This is precisely the recursion formula that the Bell numbers follow, except that every term here is being multiplied by $e$.



                          Edit: I was unaware at the time I posted my answer, but the argument I gave goes by the name of Dobiński's formula.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$


















                            52












                            $begingroup$

                            The value of $T_n := displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^n}{k!}$ is $B_n cdot e$, where $B_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Bell number.



                            To see this, note that



                            $$begin{align}
                            T_{n+1} = sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^{n+1}}{k!} &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{(k+1)^n}{k!}
                            \
                            &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k!} sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} k^j
                            \
                            &= sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^j}{k!}
                            \
                            &= sum_{j=0}^{n} {n choose j} T_j
                            end{align}$$



                            This is precisely the recursion formula that the Bell numbers follow, except that every term here is being multiplied by $e$.



                            Edit: I was unaware at the time I posted my answer, but the argument I gave goes by the name of Dobiński's formula.






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$
















                              52












                              52








                              52





                              $begingroup$

                              The value of $T_n := displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^n}{k!}$ is $B_n cdot e$, where $B_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Bell number.



                              To see this, note that



                              $$begin{align}
                              T_{n+1} = sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^{n+1}}{k!} &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{(k+1)^n}{k!}
                              \
                              &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k!} sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} k^j
                              \
                              &= sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^j}{k!}
                              \
                              &= sum_{j=0}^{n} {n choose j} T_j
                              end{align}$$



                              This is precisely the recursion formula that the Bell numbers follow, except that every term here is being multiplied by $e$.



                              Edit: I was unaware at the time I posted my answer, but the argument I gave goes by the name of Dobiński's formula.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$



                              The value of $T_n := displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^n}{k!}$ is $B_n cdot e$, where $B_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Bell number.



                              To see this, note that



                              $$begin{align}
                              T_{n+1} = sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^{n+1}}{k!} &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{(k+1)^n}{k!}
                              \
                              &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k!} sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} k^j
                              \
                              &= sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^j}{k!}
                              \
                              &= sum_{j=0}^{n} {n choose j} T_j
                              end{align}$$



                              This is precisely the recursion formula that the Bell numbers follow, except that every term here is being multiplied by $e$.



                              Edit: I was unaware at the time I posted my answer, but the argument I gave goes by the name of Dobiński's formula.







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Jul 18 '12 at 3:33









                              J. M. is not a mathematician

                              61.2k5151290




                              61.2k5151290










                              answered Jun 8 '11 at 16:26









                              JavaManJavaMan

                              11.1k12755




                              11.1k12755























                                  24












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Wolfram Alpha says it is $2e$. Another derivation is to start with $e^x=sum limits_{n=0}^infty frac{x^n}{n!}$, apply $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$ to both sides, and evaluate at $x=1$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$









                                  • 2




                                    $begingroup$
                                    $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Jack
                                    Jun 8 '11 at 17:46






                                  • 14




                                    $begingroup$
                                    It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – GEdgar
                                    Jun 8 '11 at 17:54
















                                  24












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Wolfram Alpha says it is $2e$. Another derivation is to start with $e^x=sum limits_{n=0}^infty frac{x^n}{n!}$, apply $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$ to both sides, and evaluate at $x=1$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$









                                  • 2




                                    $begingroup$
                                    $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Jack
                                    Jun 8 '11 at 17:46






                                  • 14




                                    $begingroup$
                                    It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – GEdgar
                                    Jun 8 '11 at 17:54














                                  24












                                  24








                                  24





                                  $begingroup$

                                  Wolfram Alpha says it is $2e$. Another derivation is to start with $e^x=sum limits_{n=0}^infty frac{x^n}{n!}$, apply $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$ to both sides, and evaluate at $x=1$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$



                                  Wolfram Alpha says it is $2e$. Another derivation is to start with $e^x=sum limits_{n=0}^infty frac{x^n}{n!}$, apply $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$ to both sides, and evaluate at $x=1$.







                                  share|cite|improve this answer














                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                  share|cite|improve this answer








                                  edited Dec 22 '18 at 1:30









                                  Shaun

                                  9,241113684




                                  9,241113684










                                  answered Jun 8 '11 at 15:46









                                  Ross MillikanRoss Millikan

                                  297k23198371




                                  297k23198371








                                  • 2




                                    $begingroup$
                                    $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Jack
                                    Jun 8 '11 at 17:46






                                  • 14




                                    $begingroup$
                                    It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – GEdgar
                                    Jun 8 '11 at 17:54














                                  • 2




                                    $begingroup$
                                    $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Jack
                                    Jun 8 '11 at 17:46






                                  • 14




                                    $begingroup$
                                    It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – GEdgar
                                    Jun 8 '11 at 17:54








                                  2




                                  2




                                  $begingroup$
                                  $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Jack
                                  Jun 8 '11 at 17:46




                                  $begingroup$
                                  $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Jack
                                  Jun 8 '11 at 17:46




                                  14




                                  14




                                  $begingroup$
                                  It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – GEdgar
                                  Jun 8 '11 at 17:54




                                  $begingroup$
                                  It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – GEdgar
                                  Jun 8 '11 at 17:54











                                  17












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Hint 1: $k^2=k(k-1)+k$. Hint 2: simplify the fractions $k(k-1)/k!$ and $k/k!$. Hint 3: write the series expansion around $x=0$ of the function $xmapstoexp(x)$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$


















                                    17












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Hint 1: $k^2=k(k-1)+k$. Hint 2: simplify the fractions $k(k-1)/k!$ and $k/k!$. Hint 3: write the series expansion around $x=0$ of the function $xmapstoexp(x)$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$
















                                      17












                                      17








                                      17





                                      $begingroup$

                                      Hint 1: $k^2=k(k-1)+k$. Hint 2: simplify the fractions $k(k-1)/k!$ and $k/k!$. Hint 3: write the series expansion around $x=0$ of the function $xmapstoexp(x)$.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$



                                      Hint 1: $k^2=k(k-1)+k$. Hint 2: simplify the fractions $k(k-1)/k!$ and $k/k!$. Hint 3: write the series expansion around $x=0$ of the function $xmapstoexp(x)$.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Jun 8 '11 at 15:38









                                      DidDid

                                      248k23224463




                                      248k23224463























                                          6












                                          $begingroup$

                                          A basic technique in real (complex) analysis is term by term differentiation of power series:



                                          $$
                                          e^z=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{z^k}{k!},quad e^z=(e^z)'=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{z^{k-1}}{k!},quad
                                          e^z=(e^z)''=sum_{k=1}^infty k(k-1)frac{z^{k-2}}{k!}.
                                          $$
                                          Evaluating at $z=1$, one immediately has
                                          $$
                                          e=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{k!},quad e=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{1}{k!},quad
                                          e=sum_{k=1}^infty (k^2-k)frac{1}{k!}.
                                          $$
                                          Combining the second and third equalities, we have the answer.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                          $endgroup$


















                                            6












                                            $begingroup$

                                            A basic technique in real (complex) analysis is term by term differentiation of power series:



                                            $$
                                            e^z=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{z^k}{k!},quad e^z=(e^z)'=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{z^{k-1}}{k!},quad
                                            e^z=(e^z)''=sum_{k=1}^infty k(k-1)frac{z^{k-2}}{k!}.
                                            $$
                                            Evaluating at $z=1$, one immediately has
                                            $$
                                            e=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{k!},quad e=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{1}{k!},quad
                                            e=sum_{k=1}^infty (k^2-k)frac{1}{k!}.
                                            $$
                                            Combining the second and third equalities, we have the answer.






                                            share|cite|improve this answer









                                            $endgroup$
















                                              6












                                              6








                                              6





                                              $begingroup$

                                              A basic technique in real (complex) analysis is term by term differentiation of power series:



                                              $$
                                              e^z=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{z^k}{k!},quad e^z=(e^z)'=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{z^{k-1}}{k!},quad
                                              e^z=(e^z)''=sum_{k=1}^infty k(k-1)frac{z^{k-2}}{k!}.
                                              $$
                                              Evaluating at $z=1$, one immediately has
                                              $$
                                              e=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{k!},quad e=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{1}{k!},quad
                                              e=sum_{k=1}^infty (k^2-k)frac{1}{k!}.
                                              $$
                                              Combining the second and third equalities, we have the answer.






                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                              $endgroup$



                                              A basic technique in real (complex) analysis is term by term differentiation of power series:



                                              $$
                                              e^z=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{z^k}{k!},quad e^z=(e^z)'=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{z^{k-1}}{k!},quad
                                              e^z=(e^z)''=sum_{k=1}^infty k(k-1)frac{z^{k-2}}{k!}.
                                              $$
                                              Evaluating at $z=1$, one immediately has
                                              $$
                                              e=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{k!},quad e=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{1}{k!},quad
                                              e=sum_{k=1}^infty (k^2-k)frac{1}{k!}.
                                              $$
                                              Combining the second and third equalities, we have the answer.







                                              share|cite|improve this answer












                                              share|cite|improve this answer



                                              share|cite|improve this answer










                                              answered Mar 15 '16 at 2:47









                                              JackJack

                                              1




                                              1






























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