What's the value of $sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}$?
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For some series, it is easy to say whether it is convergent or not by the "convergence test", e.g., ratio test. However, it is nontrivial to calculate the value of the sum when the series converges. The question is motivated from the simple exercise to determining whether the series $sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}$ is convergent. One may immediately get that it is convergent by the ratio test. So here is my question:
What's the value of $$sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}?$$
calculus real-analysis sequences-and-series exponential-function factorial
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For some series, it is easy to say whether it is convergent or not by the "convergence test", e.g., ratio test. However, it is nontrivial to calculate the value of the sum when the series converges. The question is motivated from the simple exercise to determining whether the series $sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}$ is convergent. One may immediately get that it is convergent by the ratio test. So here is my question:
What's the value of $$sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}?$$
calculus real-analysis sequences-and-series exponential-function factorial
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For some series, it is easy to say whether it is convergent or not by the "convergence test", e.g., ratio test. However, it is nontrivial to calculate the value of the sum when the series converges. The question is motivated from the simple exercise to determining whether the series $sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}$ is convergent. One may immediately get that it is convergent by the ratio test. So here is my question:
What's the value of $$sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}?$$
calculus real-analysis sequences-and-series exponential-function factorial
$endgroup$
For some series, it is easy to say whether it is convergent or not by the "convergence test", e.g., ratio test. However, it is nontrivial to calculate the value of the sum when the series converges. The question is motivated from the simple exercise to determining whether the series $sumlimits_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}$ is convergent. One may immediately get that it is convergent by the ratio test. So here is my question:
What's the value of $$sum_{k=1}^{infty}frac{k^2}{k!}?$$
calculus real-analysis sequences-and-series exponential-function factorial
calculus real-analysis sequences-and-series exponential-function factorial
edited Apr 16 '17 at 16:42
Martin Sleziak
44.7k10118272
44.7k10118272
asked Jun 8 '11 at 15:33
JackJack
1
1
add a comment |
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5 Answers
5
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$begingroup$
The sum is equal to $2e$. First of all, the term $k^2/k!$ may be partly canceled as $k/(k-1)!$. Second, this can be written as $(k-1+1)/(k-1)!$. The term $k-1+1$ is divided to two terms. In the first term, the $k-1$ may be canceled again, giving us $e$. The second term leads to $e$ immediately. So the total sum is $2exp(1)$.
In a similar way, one may easily calculate the sum even if $k^2$ is replaced by $k^n$, any positive integer power of $k$. The result is always a multiple of $e$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The value of $T_n := displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^n}{k!}$ is $B_n cdot e$, where $B_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Bell number.
To see this, note that
$$begin{align}
T_{n+1} = sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^{n+1}}{k!} &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{(k+1)^n}{k!}
\
&= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k!} sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} k^j
\
&= sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^j}{k!}
\
&= sum_{j=0}^{n} {n choose j} T_j
end{align}$$
This is precisely the recursion formula that the Bell numbers follow, except that every term here is being multiplied by $e$.
Edit: I was unaware at the time I posted my answer, but the argument I gave goes by the name of Dobiński's formula.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Wolfram Alpha says it is $2e$. Another derivation is to start with $e^x=sum limits_{n=0}^infty frac{x^n}{n!}$, apply $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$ to both sides, and evaluate at $x=1$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
$frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
$endgroup$
– Jack
Jun 8 '11 at 17:46
14
$begingroup$
It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Jun 8 '11 at 17:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint 1: $k^2=k(k-1)+k$. Hint 2: simplify the fractions $k(k-1)/k!$ and $k/k!$. Hint 3: write the series expansion around $x=0$ of the function $xmapstoexp(x)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A basic technique in real (complex) analysis is term by term differentiation of power series:
$$
e^z=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{z^k}{k!},quad e^z=(e^z)'=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{z^{k-1}}{k!},quad
e^z=(e^z)''=sum_{k=1}^infty k(k-1)frac{z^{k-2}}{k!}.
$$
Evaluating at $z=1$, one immediately has
$$
e=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{k!},quad e=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{1}{k!},quad
e=sum_{k=1}^infty (k^2-k)frac{1}{k!}.
$$
Combining the second and third equalities, we have the answer.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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5 Answers
5
active
oldest
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5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
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oldest
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$begingroup$
The sum is equal to $2e$. First of all, the term $k^2/k!$ may be partly canceled as $k/(k-1)!$. Second, this can be written as $(k-1+1)/(k-1)!$. The term $k-1+1$ is divided to two terms. In the first term, the $k-1$ may be canceled again, giving us $e$. The second term leads to $e$ immediately. So the total sum is $2exp(1)$.
In a similar way, one may easily calculate the sum even if $k^2$ is replaced by $k^n$, any positive integer power of $k$. The result is always a multiple of $e$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The sum is equal to $2e$. First of all, the term $k^2/k!$ may be partly canceled as $k/(k-1)!$. Second, this can be written as $(k-1+1)/(k-1)!$. The term $k-1+1$ is divided to two terms. In the first term, the $k-1$ may be canceled again, giving us $e$. The second term leads to $e$ immediately. So the total sum is $2exp(1)$.
In a similar way, one may easily calculate the sum even if $k^2$ is replaced by $k^n$, any positive integer power of $k$. The result is always a multiple of $e$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The sum is equal to $2e$. First of all, the term $k^2/k!$ may be partly canceled as $k/(k-1)!$. Second, this can be written as $(k-1+1)/(k-1)!$. The term $k-1+1$ is divided to two terms. In the first term, the $k-1$ may be canceled again, giving us $e$. The second term leads to $e$ immediately. So the total sum is $2exp(1)$.
In a similar way, one may easily calculate the sum even if $k^2$ is replaced by $k^n$, any positive integer power of $k$. The result is always a multiple of $e$.
$endgroup$
The sum is equal to $2e$. First of all, the term $k^2/k!$ may be partly canceled as $k/(k-1)!$. Second, this can be written as $(k-1+1)/(k-1)!$. The term $k-1+1$ is divided to two terms. In the first term, the $k-1$ may be canceled again, giving us $e$. The second term leads to $e$ immediately. So the total sum is $2exp(1)$.
In a similar way, one may easily calculate the sum even if $k^2$ is replaced by $k^n$, any positive integer power of $k$. The result is always a multiple of $e$.
answered Jun 8 '11 at 15:38
Luboš MotlLuboš Motl
7,05611625
7,05611625
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The value of $T_n := displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^n}{k!}$ is $B_n cdot e$, where $B_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Bell number.
To see this, note that
$$begin{align}
T_{n+1} = sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^{n+1}}{k!} &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{(k+1)^n}{k!}
\
&= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k!} sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} k^j
\
&= sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^j}{k!}
\
&= sum_{j=0}^{n} {n choose j} T_j
end{align}$$
This is precisely the recursion formula that the Bell numbers follow, except that every term here is being multiplied by $e$.
Edit: I was unaware at the time I posted my answer, but the argument I gave goes by the name of Dobiński's formula.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The value of $T_n := displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^n}{k!}$ is $B_n cdot e$, where $B_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Bell number.
To see this, note that
$$begin{align}
T_{n+1} = sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^{n+1}}{k!} &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{(k+1)^n}{k!}
\
&= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k!} sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} k^j
\
&= sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^j}{k!}
\
&= sum_{j=0}^{n} {n choose j} T_j
end{align}$$
This is precisely the recursion formula that the Bell numbers follow, except that every term here is being multiplied by $e$.
Edit: I was unaware at the time I posted my answer, but the argument I gave goes by the name of Dobiński's formula.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The value of $T_n := displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^n}{k!}$ is $B_n cdot e$, where $B_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Bell number.
To see this, note that
$$begin{align}
T_{n+1} = sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^{n+1}}{k!} &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{(k+1)^n}{k!}
\
&= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k!} sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} k^j
\
&= sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^j}{k!}
\
&= sum_{j=0}^{n} {n choose j} T_j
end{align}$$
This is precisely the recursion formula that the Bell numbers follow, except that every term here is being multiplied by $e$.
Edit: I was unaware at the time I posted my answer, but the argument I gave goes by the name of Dobiński's formula.
$endgroup$
The value of $T_n := displaystylesum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^n}{k!}$ is $B_n cdot e$, where $B_n$ is the $n^{th}$ Bell number.
To see this, note that
$$begin{align}
T_{n+1} = sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^{n+1}}{k!} &= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{(k+1)^n}{k!}
\
&= sum_{k=0}^{infty} frac{1}{k!} sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} k^j
\
&= sum_{j=0}^n {n choose j} sum_{k=1}^{infty} frac{k^j}{k!}
\
&= sum_{j=0}^{n} {n choose j} T_j
end{align}$$
This is precisely the recursion formula that the Bell numbers follow, except that every term here is being multiplied by $e$.
Edit: I was unaware at the time I posted my answer, but the argument I gave goes by the name of Dobiński's formula.
edited Jul 18 '12 at 3:33
J. M. is not a mathematician
61.2k5151290
61.2k5151290
answered Jun 8 '11 at 16:26
JavaManJavaMan
11.1k12755
11.1k12755
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Wolfram Alpha says it is $2e$. Another derivation is to start with $e^x=sum limits_{n=0}^infty frac{x^n}{n!}$, apply $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$ to both sides, and evaluate at $x=1$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
$frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
$endgroup$
– Jack
Jun 8 '11 at 17:46
14
$begingroup$
It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Jun 8 '11 at 17:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Wolfram Alpha says it is $2e$. Another derivation is to start with $e^x=sum limits_{n=0}^infty frac{x^n}{n!}$, apply $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$ to both sides, and evaluate at $x=1$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
$frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
$endgroup$
– Jack
Jun 8 '11 at 17:46
14
$begingroup$
It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Jun 8 '11 at 17:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Wolfram Alpha says it is $2e$. Another derivation is to start with $e^x=sum limits_{n=0}^infty frac{x^n}{n!}$, apply $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$ to both sides, and evaluate at $x=1$.
$endgroup$
Wolfram Alpha says it is $2e$. Another derivation is to start with $e^x=sum limits_{n=0}^infty frac{x^n}{n!}$, apply $frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$ to both sides, and evaluate at $x=1$.
edited Dec 22 '18 at 1:30
Shaun
9,241113684
9,241113684
answered Jun 8 '11 at 15:46
Ross MillikanRoss Millikan
297k23198371
297k23198371
2
$begingroup$
$frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
$endgroup$
– Jack
Jun 8 '11 at 17:46
14
$begingroup$
It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Jun 8 '11 at 17:54
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
$frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
$endgroup$
– Jack
Jun 8 '11 at 17:46
14
$begingroup$
It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Jun 8 '11 at 17:54
2
2
$begingroup$
$frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
$endgroup$
– Jack
Jun 8 '11 at 17:46
$begingroup$
$frac{d}{dx}xfrac{d}{dx}$, typo?
$endgroup$
– Jack
Jun 8 '11 at 17:46
14
14
$begingroup$
It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Jun 8 '11 at 17:54
$begingroup$
It means: differentiate, then multiply by $x$, then differentiate.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Jun 8 '11 at 17:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint 1: $k^2=k(k-1)+k$. Hint 2: simplify the fractions $k(k-1)/k!$ and $k/k!$. Hint 3: write the series expansion around $x=0$ of the function $xmapstoexp(x)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint 1: $k^2=k(k-1)+k$. Hint 2: simplify the fractions $k(k-1)/k!$ and $k/k!$. Hint 3: write the series expansion around $x=0$ of the function $xmapstoexp(x)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint 1: $k^2=k(k-1)+k$. Hint 2: simplify the fractions $k(k-1)/k!$ and $k/k!$. Hint 3: write the series expansion around $x=0$ of the function $xmapstoexp(x)$.
$endgroup$
Hint 1: $k^2=k(k-1)+k$. Hint 2: simplify the fractions $k(k-1)/k!$ and $k/k!$. Hint 3: write the series expansion around $x=0$ of the function $xmapstoexp(x)$.
answered Jun 8 '11 at 15:38
DidDid
248k23224463
248k23224463
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A basic technique in real (complex) analysis is term by term differentiation of power series:
$$
e^z=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{z^k}{k!},quad e^z=(e^z)'=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{z^{k-1}}{k!},quad
e^z=(e^z)''=sum_{k=1}^infty k(k-1)frac{z^{k-2}}{k!}.
$$
Evaluating at $z=1$, one immediately has
$$
e=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{k!},quad e=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{1}{k!},quad
e=sum_{k=1}^infty (k^2-k)frac{1}{k!}.
$$
Combining the second and third equalities, we have the answer.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A basic technique in real (complex) analysis is term by term differentiation of power series:
$$
e^z=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{z^k}{k!},quad e^z=(e^z)'=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{z^{k-1}}{k!},quad
e^z=(e^z)''=sum_{k=1}^infty k(k-1)frac{z^{k-2}}{k!}.
$$
Evaluating at $z=1$, one immediately has
$$
e=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{k!},quad e=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{1}{k!},quad
e=sum_{k=1}^infty (k^2-k)frac{1}{k!}.
$$
Combining the second and third equalities, we have the answer.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A basic technique in real (complex) analysis is term by term differentiation of power series:
$$
e^z=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{z^k}{k!},quad e^z=(e^z)'=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{z^{k-1}}{k!},quad
e^z=(e^z)''=sum_{k=1}^infty k(k-1)frac{z^{k-2}}{k!}.
$$
Evaluating at $z=1$, one immediately has
$$
e=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{k!},quad e=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{1}{k!},quad
e=sum_{k=1}^infty (k^2-k)frac{1}{k!}.
$$
Combining the second and third equalities, we have the answer.
$endgroup$
A basic technique in real (complex) analysis is term by term differentiation of power series:
$$
e^z=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{z^k}{k!},quad e^z=(e^z)'=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{z^{k-1}}{k!},quad
e^z=(e^z)''=sum_{k=1}^infty k(k-1)frac{z^{k-2}}{k!}.
$$
Evaluating at $z=1$, one immediately has
$$
e=sum_{k=0}^inftyfrac{1}{k!},quad e=sum_{k=1}^infty kcdotfrac{1}{k!},quad
e=sum_{k=1}^infty (k^2-k)frac{1}{k!}.
$$
Combining the second and third equalities, we have the answer.
answered Mar 15 '16 at 2:47
JackJack
1
1
add a comment |
add a comment |
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