Stalks of the pushforward sheaf.
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I know that in general, the stalks of the pushforward of a sheaf need not be the same as the original stalk. That is, $(f_{*}mathcal{F})_{f(p)}=mathcal{F}_p$ is not true in general. But when $X subset Y$ and $f$ is the inclusion map, is it true that the above holds for $p in X$ and that the stalks are zero(or the terminal object) for points not in X?
I am asking this because I was able to prove this for any subset, but in Hartshorne Chapter 2, exercise 19, he asks you to prove that this holds for closed subsets and that a different construction(denoted $f_{!}mathcal{F}$) gives these stalks for open subsets.
algebraic-geometry sheaf-theory
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know that in general, the stalks of the pushforward of a sheaf need not be the same as the original stalk. That is, $(f_{*}mathcal{F})_{f(p)}=mathcal{F}_p$ is not true in general. But when $X subset Y$ and $f$ is the inclusion map, is it true that the above holds for $p in X$ and that the stalks are zero(or the terminal object) for points not in X?
I am asking this because I was able to prove this for any subset, but in Hartshorne Chapter 2, exercise 19, he asks you to prove that this holds for closed subsets and that a different construction(denoted $f_{!}mathcal{F}$) gives these stalks for open subsets.
algebraic-geometry sheaf-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know that in general, the stalks of the pushforward of a sheaf need not be the same as the original stalk. That is, $(f_{*}mathcal{F})_{f(p)}=mathcal{F}_p$ is not true in general. But when $X subset Y$ and $f$ is the inclusion map, is it true that the above holds for $p in X$ and that the stalks are zero(or the terminal object) for points not in X?
I am asking this because I was able to prove this for any subset, but in Hartshorne Chapter 2, exercise 19, he asks you to prove that this holds for closed subsets and that a different construction(denoted $f_{!}mathcal{F}$) gives these stalks for open subsets.
algebraic-geometry sheaf-theory
$endgroup$
I know that in general, the stalks of the pushforward of a sheaf need not be the same as the original stalk. That is, $(f_{*}mathcal{F})_{f(p)}=mathcal{F}_p$ is not true in general. But when $X subset Y$ and $f$ is the inclusion map, is it true that the above holds for $p in X$ and that the stalks are zero(or the terminal object) for points not in X?
I am asking this because I was able to prove this for any subset, but in Hartshorne Chapter 2, exercise 19, he asks you to prove that this holds for closed subsets and that a different construction(denoted $f_{!}mathcal{F}$) gives these stalks for open subsets.
algebraic-geometry sheaf-theory
algebraic-geometry sheaf-theory
asked Dec 22 '18 at 9:19
Jehu314Jehu314
1548
1548
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1 Answer
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No it is not true, take $Y$ to be the unit disc in $mathbb{C}$ and $Xsubset Y$ to be the punctured unit disc and $mathcal{F}$ to be the constant sheaf of fiber say $mathbb{Z}$ over $X$. The inclusion will be denoted by $i$, and $0$ will be the origin of the disc.
Then the fiber of $i_*mathcal{F}$ at $0$ will be... $mathbb{Z}$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
$endgroup$
– Jehu314
Dec 22 '18 at 13:06
1
$begingroup$
Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
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– A.Rod
Dec 22 '18 at 13:09
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
No it is not true, take $Y$ to be the unit disc in $mathbb{C}$ and $Xsubset Y$ to be the punctured unit disc and $mathcal{F}$ to be the constant sheaf of fiber say $mathbb{Z}$ over $X$. The inclusion will be denoted by $i$, and $0$ will be the origin of the disc.
Then the fiber of $i_*mathcal{F}$ at $0$ will be... $mathbb{Z}$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
$endgroup$
– Jehu314
Dec 22 '18 at 13:06
1
$begingroup$
Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
$endgroup$
– A.Rod
Dec 22 '18 at 13:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No it is not true, take $Y$ to be the unit disc in $mathbb{C}$ and $Xsubset Y$ to be the punctured unit disc and $mathcal{F}$ to be the constant sheaf of fiber say $mathbb{Z}$ over $X$. The inclusion will be denoted by $i$, and $0$ will be the origin of the disc.
Then the fiber of $i_*mathcal{F}$ at $0$ will be... $mathbb{Z}$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
$endgroup$
– Jehu314
Dec 22 '18 at 13:06
1
$begingroup$
Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
$endgroup$
– A.Rod
Dec 22 '18 at 13:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No it is not true, take $Y$ to be the unit disc in $mathbb{C}$ and $Xsubset Y$ to be the punctured unit disc and $mathcal{F}$ to be the constant sheaf of fiber say $mathbb{Z}$ over $X$. The inclusion will be denoted by $i$, and $0$ will be the origin of the disc.
Then the fiber of $i_*mathcal{F}$ at $0$ will be... $mathbb{Z}$.
$endgroup$
No it is not true, take $Y$ to be the unit disc in $mathbb{C}$ and $Xsubset Y$ to be the punctured unit disc and $mathcal{F}$ to be the constant sheaf of fiber say $mathbb{Z}$ over $X$. The inclusion will be denoted by $i$, and $0$ will be the origin of the disc.
Then the fiber of $i_*mathcal{F}$ at $0$ will be... $mathbb{Z}$.
answered Dec 22 '18 at 10:31
A.RodA.Rod
57935
57935
$begingroup$
Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
$endgroup$
– Jehu314
Dec 22 '18 at 13:06
1
$begingroup$
Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
$endgroup$
– A.Rod
Dec 22 '18 at 13:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
$endgroup$
– Jehu314
Dec 22 '18 at 13:06
1
$begingroup$
Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
$endgroup$
– A.Rod
Dec 22 '18 at 13:09
$begingroup$
Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
$endgroup$
– Jehu314
Dec 22 '18 at 13:06
$begingroup$
Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
$endgroup$
– Jehu314
Dec 22 '18 at 13:06
1
1
$begingroup$
Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
$endgroup$
– A.Rod
Dec 22 '18 at 13:09
$begingroup$
Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
$endgroup$
– A.Rod
Dec 22 '18 at 13:09
add a comment |
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