Stalks of the pushforward sheaf.












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I know that in general, the stalks of the pushforward of a sheaf need not be the same as the original stalk. That is, $(f_{*}mathcal{F})_{f(p)}=mathcal{F}_p$ is not true in general. But when $X subset Y$ and $f$ is the inclusion map, is it true that the above holds for $p in X$ and that the stalks are zero(or the terminal object) for points not in X?



I am asking this because I was able to prove this for any subset, but in Hartshorne Chapter 2, exercise 19, he asks you to prove that this holds for closed subsets and that a different construction(denoted $f_{!}mathcal{F}$) gives these stalks for open subsets.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I know that in general, the stalks of the pushforward of a sheaf need not be the same as the original stalk. That is, $(f_{*}mathcal{F})_{f(p)}=mathcal{F}_p$ is not true in general. But when $X subset Y$ and $f$ is the inclusion map, is it true that the above holds for $p in X$ and that the stalks are zero(or the terminal object) for points not in X?



    I am asking this because I was able to prove this for any subset, but in Hartshorne Chapter 2, exercise 19, he asks you to prove that this holds for closed subsets and that a different construction(denoted $f_{!}mathcal{F}$) gives these stalks for open subsets.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I know that in general, the stalks of the pushforward of a sheaf need not be the same as the original stalk. That is, $(f_{*}mathcal{F})_{f(p)}=mathcal{F}_p$ is not true in general. But when $X subset Y$ and $f$ is the inclusion map, is it true that the above holds for $p in X$ and that the stalks are zero(or the terminal object) for points not in X?



      I am asking this because I was able to prove this for any subset, but in Hartshorne Chapter 2, exercise 19, he asks you to prove that this holds for closed subsets and that a different construction(denoted $f_{!}mathcal{F}$) gives these stalks for open subsets.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I know that in general, the stalks of the pushforward of a sheaf need not be the same as the original stalk. That is, $(f_{*}mathcal{F})_{f(p)}=mathcal{F}_p$ is not true in general. But when $X subset Y$ and $f$ is the inclusion map, is it true that the above holds for $p in X$ and that the stalks are zero(or the terminal object) for points not in X?



      I am asking this because I was able to prove this for any subset, but in Hartshorne Chapter 2, exercise 19, he asks you to prove that this holds for closed subsets and that a different construction(denoted $f_{!}mathcal{F}$) gives these stalks for open subsets.







      algebraic-geometry sheaf-theory






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      asked Dec 22 '18 at 9:19









      Jehu314Jehu314

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          No it is not true, take $Y$ to be the unit disc in $mathbb{C}$ and $Xsubset Y$ to be the punctured unit disc and $mathcal{F}$ to be the constant sheaf of fiber say $mathbb{Z}$ over $X$. The inclusion will be denoted by $i$, and $0$ will be the origin of the disc.
          Then the fiber of $i_*mathcal{F}$ at $0$ will be... $mathbb{Z}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
            $endgroup$
            – Jehu314
            Dec 22 '18 at 13:06






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
            $endgroup$
            – A.Rod
            Dec 22 '18 at 13:09











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          $begingroup$

          No it is not true, take $Y$ to be the unit disc in $mathbb{C}$ and $Xsubset Y$ to be the punctured unit disc and $mathcal{F}$ to be the constant sheaf of fiber say $mathbb{Z}$ over $X$. The inclusion will be denoted by $i$, and $0$ will be the origin of the disc.
          Then the fiber of $i_*mathcal{F}$ at $0$ will be... $mathbb{Z}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
            $endgroup$
            – Jehu314
            Dec 22 '18 at 13:06






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
            $endgroup$
            – A.Rod
            Dec 22 '18 at 13:09
















          1












          $begingroup$

          No it is not true, take $Y$ to be the unit disc in $mathbb{C}$ and $Xsubset Y$ to be the punctured unit disc and $mathcal{F}$ to be the constant sheaf of fiber say $mathbb{Z}$ over $X$. The inclusion will be denoted by $i$, and $0$ will be the origin of the disc.
          Then the fiber of $i_*mathcal{F}$ at $0$ will be... $mathbb{Z}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
            $endgroup$
            – Jehu314
            Dec 22 '18 at 13:06






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
            $endgroup$
            – A.Rod
            Dec 22 '18 at 13:09














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          No it is not true, take $Y$ to be the unit disc in $mathbb{C}$ and $Xsubset Y$ to be the punctured unit disc and $mathcal{F}$ to be the constant sheaf of fiber say $mathbb{Z}$ over $X$. The inclusion will be denoted by $i$, and $0$ will be the origin of the disc.
          Then the fiber of $i_*mathcal{F}$ at $0$ will be... $mathbb{Z}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          No it is not true, take $Y$ to be the unit disc in $mathbb{C}$ and $Xsubset Y$ to be the punctured unit disc and $mathcal{F}$ to be the constant sheaf of fiber say $mathbb{Z}$ over $X$. The inclusion will be denoted by $i$, and $0$ will be the origin of the disc.
          Then the fiber of $i_*mathcal{F}$ at $0$ will be... $mathbb{Z}$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 22 '18 at 10:31









          A.RodA.Rod

          57935




          57935












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
            $endgroup$
            – Jehu314
            Dec 22 '18 at 13:06






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
            $endgroup$
            – A.Rod
            Dec 22 '18 at 13:09


















          • $begingroup$
            Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
            $endgroup$
            – Jehu314
            Dec 22 '18 at 13:06






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
            $endgroup$
            – A.Rod
            Dec 22 '18 at 13:09
















          $begingroup$
          Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
          $endgroup$
          – Jehu314
          Dec 22 '18 at 13:06




          $begingroup$
          Thanks, I have found out where I went wrong. I tacitly assumed that every point not in $X$ had an open neighbourhood disjoint from $X$. But for the points in $X$, the stalks are the same, aren't they?
          $endgroup$
          – Jehu314
          Dec 22 '18 at 13:06




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
          $endgroup$
          – A.Rod
          Dec 22 '18 at 13:09




          $begingroup$
          Yes, by definition of the induced topology.
          $endgroup$
          – A.Rod
          Dec 22 '18 at 13:09


















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