proving that f:N^2->N is bijective












0












$begingroup$


I'v got a function $f:omega^2toomega$ defined



$$
f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n
$$



This function suppose to be a bijection between $omega$ and $omega^2$, but I can't find a simple proof that it's bijective.
$f$ noppose to order $omega^2$ like this



enter image description here



Every proof I saw (in my undergrad degree, for example) was just this picture, with no further proof.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pairing_function#Cantor_pairing_function
    $endgroup$
    – Noah Schweber
    Dec 23 '18 at 0:51






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Proof by pictures" can be some of the simplest kinds of proof. As the picture suggests, if we were to go through the entries of the diagonals going from up-left to down-right, starting from the smallest such diagonal and progressively getting larger, this corresponds to going through the outputs as $0,1,2,3,4,dots$ going through each of the natural numbers in sequence. Showing that the function acts as described takes a bit of knowledge about triangular numbers and can be proven by induction over the sum of $n+k$ as well as $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    Dec 23 '18 at 0:56












  • $begingroup$
    Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3010935/…
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:22










  • $begingroup$
    What is $omega$?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Michael. $omega =mathbb{N}$. This is a convention from cardinal arithmetic.
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:29
















0












$begingroup$


I'v got a function $f:omega^2toomega$ defined



$$
f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n
$$



This function suppose to be a bijection between $omega$ and $omega^2$, but I can't find a simple proof that it's bijective.
$f$ noppose to order $omega^2$ like this



enter image description here



Every proof I saw (in my undergrad degree, for example) was just this picture, with no further proof.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pairing_function#Cantor_pairing_function
    $endgroup$
    – Noah Schweber
    Dec 23 '18 at 0:51






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Proof by pictures" can be some of the simplest kinds of proof. As the picture suggests, if we were to go through the entries of the diagonals going from up-left to down-right, starting from the smallest such diagonal and progressively getting larger, this corresponds to going through the outputs as $0,1,2,3,4,dots$ going through each of the natural numbers in sequence. Showing that the function acts as described takes a bit of knowledge about triangular numbers and can be proven by induction over the sum of $n+k$ as well as $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    Dec 23 '18 at 0:56












  • $begingroup$
    Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3010935/…
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:22










  • $begingroup$
    What is $omega$?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Michael. $omega =mathbb{N}$. This is a convention from cardinal arithmetic.
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:29














0












0








0


0



$begingroup$


I'v got a function $f:omega^2toomega$ defined



$$
f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n
$$



This function suppose to be a bijection between $omega$ and $omega^2$, but I can't find a simple proof that it's bijective.
$f$ noppose to order $omega^2$ like this



enter image description here



Every proof I saw (in my undergrad degree, for example) was just this picture, with no further proof.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I'v got a function $f:omega^2toomega$ defined



$$
f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n
$$



This function suppose to be a bijection between $omega$ and $omega^2$, but I can't find a simple proof that it's bijective.
$f$ noppose to order $omega^2$ like this



enter image description here



Every proof I saw (in my undergrad degree, for example) was just this picture, with no further proof.







natural-numbers






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 23 '18 at 0:40









Barak OhanaBarak Ohana

224




224








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pairing_function#Cantor_pairing_function
    $endgroup$
    – Noah Schweber
    Dec 23 '18 at 0:51






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Proof by pictures" can be some of the simplest kinds of proof. As the picture suggests, if we were to go through the entries of the diagonals going from up-left to down-right, starting from the smallest such diagonal and progressively getting larger, this corresponds to going through the outputs as $0,1,2,3,4,dots$ going through each of the natural numbers in sequence. Showing that the function acts as described takes a bit of knowledge about triangular numbers and can be proven by induction over the sum of $n+k$ as well as $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    Dec 23 '18 at 0:56












  • $begingroup$
    Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3010935/…
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:22










  • $begingroup$
    What is $omega$?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Michael. $omega =mathbb{N}$. This is a convention from cardinal arithmetic.
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:29














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pairing_function#Cantor_pairing_function
    $endgroup$
    – Noah Schweber
    Dec 23 '18 at 0:51






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "Proof by pictures" can be some of the simplest kinds of proof. As the picture suggests, if we were to go through the entries of the diagonals going from up-left to down-right, starting from the smallest such diagonal and progressively getting larger, this corresponds to going through the outputs as $0,1,2,3,4,dots$ going through each of the natural numbers in sequence. Showing that the function acts as described takes a bit of knowledge about triangular numbers and can be proven by induction over the sum of $n+k$ as well as $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – JMoravitz
    Dec 23 '18 at 0:56












  • $begingroup$
    Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3010935/…
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:22










  • $begingroup$
    What is $omega$?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Michael. $omega =mathbb{N}$. This is a convention from cardinal arithmetic.
    $endgroup$
    – Mason
    Dec 23 '18 at 1:29








2




2




$begingroup$
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pairing_function#Cantor_pairing_function
$endgroup$
– Noah Schweber
Dec 23 '18 at 0:51




$begingroup$
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pairing_function#Cantor_pairing_function
$endgroup$
– Noah Schweber
Dec 23 '18 at 0:51




1




1




$begingroup$
"Proof by pictures" can be some of the simplest kinds of proof. As the picture suggests, if we were to go through the entries of the diagonals going from up-left to down-right, starting from the smallest such diagonal and progressively getting larger, this corresponds to going through the outputs as $0,1,2,3,4,dots$ going through each of the natural numbers in sequence. Showing that the function acts as described takes a bit of knowledge about triangular numbers and can be proven by induction over the sum of $n+k$ as well as $n$.
$endgroup$
– JMoravitz
Dec 23 '18 at 0:56






$begingroup$
"Proof by pictures" can be some of the simplest kinds of proof. As the picture suggests, if we were to go through the entries of the diagonals going from up-left to down-right, starting from the smallest such diagonal and progressively getting larger, this corresponds to going through the outputs as $0,1,2,3,4,dots$ going through each of the natural numbers in sequence. Showing that the function acts as described takes a bit of knowledge about triangular numbers and can be proven by induction over the sum of $n+k$ as well as $n$.
$endgroup$
– JMoravitz
Dec 23 '18 at 0:56














$begingroup$
Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3010935/…
$endgroup$
– Mason
Dec 23 '18 at 1:22




$begingroup$
Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3010935/…
$endgroup$
– Mason
Dec 23 '18 at 1:22












$begingroup$
What is $omega$?
$endgroup$
– Michael
Dec 23 '18 at 1:24




$begingroup$
What is $omega$?
$endgroup$
– Michael
Dec 23 '18 at 1:24




1




1




$begingroup$
@Michael. $omega =mathbb{N}$. This is a convention from cardinal arithmetic.
$endgroup$
– Mason
Dec 23 '18 at 1:29




$begingroup$
@Michael. $omega =mathbb{N}$. This is a convention from cardinal arithmetic.
$endgroup$
– Mason
Dec 23 '18 at 1:29










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Well, you want a proof.



Let $m in mathbb N$



We want to prove that there exist a unique pair of $n,k$ so that



$f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n =m$



Let $w_m$ be the smallest natural number where $1 + 2 + ..... + w_m = sum_{j=1}^{w_m} frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2 ge m$.



We know such a number exists as: $S= {kin mathbb N| 1+2+3+....k ge m}$ is not empty because $m in S$ as $1 + .... + m > m$. And by well-ordering principal $S$ has a least element.



So $frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 ge m$ so $frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2- m ge 0$ so let $n = frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2-m in mathbb N$.



Now $n < w_m$ because otherwise if $n ge w_m$



$1 + 2 + ..... + (w_m - 1) = frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 -w_m ge frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 - n = m$



But $w_m$ was the smallest such number.



Let $k = w_m -n$.



So $f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n=$



$frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2 + (m -frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2) = m$.



So $f$ is onto.



Now if for any $a+b$ if $a + b > n+k$



then $frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 + b ge frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 > m$ (because we proved $n+k = min S=min{kin mathbb N| 1+2+3+....k ge m}$



And if $a+b < n+k$ then $m - (1 + 2 + ...... + a+b) ge (a+b) +1$ (because $a+bnot in S$.)



So if $f(a,b) = f(n,k)=m$ then $a+b = n+k$.



So $frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 = frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}$ and so $b = m - frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 = m - frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}$ so $b = n$.



So $a = (a+b)-b = (n+k)-n = k$.



So $(n,k)$ is a unique value.



So $f$ is one-to-one.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I didn't quite understand why, in the ono-to-one proof we got $ m−(1+2+......+a+b)geq(a+b)+1 $.
    $endgroup$
    – Barak Ohana
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:52










  • $begingroup$
    $w_m = n+k$ was the smallest such number where the sum is $ge m$. If $a+b > n+k$ then $1 + ..... + (a+b) > 1 + ..... + (n+k) ge m$. If $a+b < n+k$ then $1 + .... + (a+b) not ge m$
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 23 '18 at 17:27



















1












$begingroup$

The intuitive argument is that $left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)$ is even and non-negative so clearly this is a function $omega^2 to omega$, while $f(0,k)=frac{kleft(k+1right)}{2}$ giving the triangle numbers $0,1,3,6,10, ldots$ for $k=0,1,2,3,4,ldots$, and so $f(m,k-m)=frac{kleft(k+1right)}{2} +m$ for $0 le m le k$ fills the gaps between the triangle numbers



More explicitly, if we had a function which was in a sense the inverse of the triangle numbers, say $g(x)=bigl{lfloor} frac{sqrt{8x+1}-1}{2}bigr{rfloor}$ and another giving a sort of remainder, say $h(x)=x-frac{g(x)(g(x)+1)}2$, then we could construct an actual inverse of $f$ as $i:omega to omega^2$ with $i(x) = Big(h(x), g(x)-h(x)Big)$ in the sense that $i(f(n,k))=(n,k)$ and $f(i(x))=x$. If you have a two-way inverse then you have a bijection






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    great way to show that $f$ is surjective! I don't see how $g$ make sense as an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – Barak Ohana
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:00












  • $begingroup$
    @user3195363 for example $g(6)=3$ and $g(10)=4$ which is what you want when inverting triangle numbers. But it is only an inverse "in a sense" and one-way since you also have $g(7)=3$
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:05











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

Well, you want a proof.



Let $m in mathbb N$



We want to prove that there exist a unique pair of $n,k$ so that



$f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n =m$



Let $w_m$ be the smallest natural number where $1 + 2 + ..... + w_m = sum_{j=1}^{w_m} frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2 ge m$.



We know such a number exists as: $S= {kin mathbb N| 1+2+3+....k ge m}$ is not empty because $m in S$ as $1 + .... + m > m$. And by well-ordering principal $S$ has a least element.



So $frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 ge m$ so $frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2- m ge 0$ so let $n = frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2-m in mathbb N$.



Now $n < w_m$ because otherwise if $n ge w_m$



$1 + 2 + ..... + (w_m - 1) = frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 -w_m ge frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 - n = m$



But $w_m$ was the smallest such number.



Let $k = w_m -n$.



So $f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n=$



$frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2 + (m -frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2) = m$.



So $f$ is onto.



Now if for any $a+b$ if $a + b > n+k$



then $frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 + b ge frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 > m$ (because we proved $n+k = min S=min{kin mathbb N| 1+2+3+....k ge m}$



And if $a+b < n+k$ then $m - (1 + 2 + ...... + a+b) ge (a+b) +1$ (because $a+bnot in S$.)



So if $f(a,b) = f(n,k)=m$ then $a+b = n+k$.



So $frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 = frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}$ and so $b = m - frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 = m - frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}$ so $b = n$.



So $a = (a+b)-b = (n+k)-n = k$.



So $(n,k)$ is a unique value.



So $f$ is one-to-one.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I didn't quite understand why, in the ono-to-one proof we got $ m−(1+2+......+a+b)geq(a+b)+1 $.
    $endgroup$
    – Barak Ohana
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:52










  • $begingroup$
    $w_m = n+k$ was the smallest such number where the sum is $ge m$. If $a+b > n+k$ then $1 + ..... + (a+b) > 1 + ..... + (n+k) ge m$. If $a+b < n+k$ then $1 + .... + (a+b) not ge m$
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 23 '18 at 17:27
















0












$begingroup$

Well, you want a proof.



Let $m in mathbb N$



We want to prove that there exist a unique pair of $n,k$ so that



$f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n =m$



Let $w_m$ be the smallest natural number where $1 + 2 + ..... + w_m = sum_{j=1}^{w_m} frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2 ge m$.



We know such a number exists as: $S= {kin mathbb N| 1+2+3+....k ge m}$ is not empty because $m in S$ as $1 + .... + m > m$. And by well-ordering principal $S$ has a least element.



So $frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 ge m$ so $frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2- m ge 0$ so let $n = frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2-m in mathbb N$.



Now $n < w_m$ because otherwise if $n ge w_m$



$1 + 2 + ..... + (w_m - 1) = frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 -w_m ge frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 - n = m$



But $w_m$ was the smallest such number.



Let $k = w_m -n$.



So $f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n=$



$frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2 + (m -frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2) = m$.



So $f$ is onto.



Now if for any $a+b$ if $a + b > n+k$



then $frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 + b ge frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 > m$ (because we proved $n+k = min S=min{kin mathbb N| 1+2+3+....k ge m}$



And if $a+b < n+k$ then $m - (1 + 2 + ...... + a+b) ge (a+b) +1$ (because $a+bnot in S$.)



So if $f(a,b) = f(n,k)=m$ then $a+b = n+k$.



So $frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 = frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}$ and so $b = m - frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 = m - frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}$ so $b = n$.



So $a = (a+b)-b = (n+k)-n = k$.



So $(n,k)$ is a unique value.



So $f$ is one-to-one.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I didn't quite understand why, in the ono-to-one proof we got $ m−(1+2+......+a+b)geq(a+b)+1 $.
    $endgroup$
    – Barak Ohana
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:52










  • $begingroup$
    $w_m = n+k$ was the smallest such number where the sum is $ge m$. If $a+b > n+k$ then $1 + ..... + (a+b) > 1 + ..... + (n+k) ge m$. If $a+b < n+k$ then $1 + .... + (a+b) not ge m$
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 23 '18 at 17:27














0












0








0





$begingroup$

Well, you want a proof.



Let $m in mathbb N$



We want to prove that there exist a unique pair of $n,k$ so that



$f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n =m$



Let $w_m$ be the smallest natural number where $1 + 2 + ..... + w_m = sum_{j=1}^{w_m} frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2 ge m$.



We know such a number exists as: $S= {kin mathbb N| 1+2+3+....k ge m}$ is not empty because $m in S$ as $1 + .... + m > m$. And by well-ordering principal $S$ has a least element.



So $frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 ge m$ so $frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2- m ge 0$ so let $n = frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2-m in mathbb N$.



Now $n < w_m$ because otherwise if $n ge w_m$



$1 + 2 + ..... + (w_m - 1) = frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 -w_m ge frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 - n = m$



But $w_m$ was the smallest such number.



Let $k = w_m -n$.



So $f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n=$



$frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2 + (m -frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2) = m$.



So $f$ is onto.



Now if for any $a+b$ if $a + b > n+k$



then $frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 + b ge frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 > m$ (because we proved $n+k = min S=min{kin mathbb N| 1+2+3+....k ge m}$



And if $a+b < n+k$ then $m - (1 + 2 + ...... + a+b) ge (a+b) +1$ (because $a+bnot in S$.)



So if $f(a,b) = f(n,k)=m$ then $a+b = n+k$.



So $frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 = frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}$ and so $b = m - frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 = m - frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}$ so $b = n$.



So $a = (a+b)-b = (n+k)-n = k$.



So $(n,k)$ is a unique value.



So $f$ is one-to-one.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Well, you want a proof.



Let $m in mathbb N$



We want to prove that there exist a unique pair of $n,k$ so that



$f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n =m$



Let $w_m$ be the smallest natural number where $1 + 2 + ..... + w_m = sum_{j=1}^{w_m} frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2 ge m$.



We know such a number exists as: $S= {kin mathbb N| 1+2+3+....k ge m}$ is not empty because $m in S$ as $1 + .... + m > m$. And by well-ordering principal $S$ has a least element.



So $frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 ge m$ so $frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2- m ge 0$ so let $n = frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2-m in mathbb N$.



Now $n < w_m$ because otherwise if $n ge w_m$



$1 + 2 + ..... + (w_m - 1) = frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 -w_m ge frac {w_m(w_m+1)}2 - n = m$



But $w_m$ was the smallest such number.



Let $k = w_m -n$.



So $f(n,k)=frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}+n=$



$frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2 + (m -frac {w_m(w_m + 1)}2) = m$.



So $f$ is onto.



Now if for any $a+b$ if $a + b > n+k$



then $frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 + b ge frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 > m$ (because we proved $n+k = min S=min{kin mathbb N| 1+2+3+....k ge m}$



And if $a+b < n+k$ then $m - (1 + 2 + ...... + a+b) ge (a+b) +1$ (because $a+bnot in S$.)



So if $f(a,b) = f(n,k)=m$ then $a+b = n+k$.



So $frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 = frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}$ and so $b = m - frac {(a+b)(a+b+1)}2 = m - frac{left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)}{2}$ so $b = n$.



So $a = (a+b)-b = (n+k)-n = k$.



So $(n,k)$ is a unique value.



So $f$ is one-to-one.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 23 '18 at 2:32









fleabloodfleablood

71.1k22686




71.1k22686












  • $begingroup$
    I didn't quite understand why, in the ono-to-one proof we got $ m−(1+2+......+a+b)geq(a+b)+1 $.
    $endgroup$
    – Barak Ohana
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:52










  • $begingroup$
    $w_m = n+k$ was the smallest such number where the sum is $ge m$. If $a+b > n+k$ then $1 + ..... + (a+b) > 1 + ..... + (n+k) ge m$. If $a+b < n+k$ then $1 + .... + (a+b) not ge m$
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 23 '18 at 17:27


















  • $begingroup$
    I didn't quite understand why, in the ono-to-one proof we got $ m−(1+2+......+a+b)geq(a+b)+1 $.
    $endgroup$
    – Barak Ohana
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:52










  • $begingroup$
    $w_m = n+k$ was the smallest such number where the sum is $ge m$. If $a+b > n+k$ then $1 + ..... + (a+b) > 1 + ..... + (n+k) ge m$. If $a+b < n+k$ then $1 + .... + (a+b) not ge m$
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 23 '18 at 17:27
















$begingroup$
I didn't quite understand why, in the ono-to-one proof we got $ m−(1+2+......+a+b)geq(a+b)+1 $.
$endgroup$
– Barak Ohana
Dec 23 '18 at 10:52




$begingroup$
I didn't quite understand why, in the ono-to-one proof we got $ m−(1+2+......+a+b)geq(a+b)+1 $.
$endgroup$
– Barak Ohana
Dec 23 '18 at 10:52












$begingroup$
$w_m = n+k$ was the smallest such number where the sum is $ge m$. If $a+b > n+k$ then $1 + ..... + (a+b) > 1 + ..... + (n+k) ge m$. If $a+b < n+k$ then $1 + .... + (a+b) not ge m$
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Dec 23 '18 at 17:27




$begingroup$
$w_m = n+k$ was the smallest such number where the sum is $ge m$. If $a+b > n+k$ then $1 + ..... + (a+b) > 1 + ..... + (n+k) ge m$. If $a+b < n+k$ then $1 + .... + (a+b) not ge m$
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Dec 23 '18 at 17:27











1












$begingroup$

The intuitive argument is that $left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)$ is even and non-negative so clearly this is a function $omega^2 to omega$, while $f(0,k)=frac{kleft(k+1right)}{2}$ giving the triangle numbers $0,1,3,6,10, ldots$ for $k=0,1,2,3,4,ldots$, and so $f(m,k-m)=frac{kleft(k+1right)}{2} +m$ for $0 le m le k$ fills the gaps between the triangle numbers



More explicitly, if we had a function which was in a sense the inverse of the triangle numbers, say $g(x)=bigl{lfloor} frac{sqrt{8x+1}-1}{2}bigr{rfloor}$ and another giving a sort of remainder, say $h(x)=x-frac{g(x)(g(x)+1)}2$, then we could construct an actual inverse of $f$ as $i:omega to omega^2$ with $i(x) = Big(h(x), g(x)-h(x)Big)$ in the sense that $i(f(n,k))=(n,k)$ and $f(i(x))=x$. If you have a two-way inverse then you have a bijection






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    great way to show that $f$ is surjective! I don't see how $g$ make sense as an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – Barak Ohana
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:00












  • $begingroup$
    @user3195363 for example $g(6)=3$ and $g(10)=4$ which is what you want when inverting triangle numbers. But it is only an inverse "in a sense" and one-way since you also have $g(7)=3$
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:05
















1












$begingroup$

The intuitive argument is that $left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)$ is even and non-negative so clearly this is a function $omega^2 to omega$, while $f(0,k)=frac{kleft(k+1right)}{2}$ giving the triangle numbers $0,1,3,6,10, ldots$ for $k=0,1,2,3,4,ldots$, and so $f(m,k-m)=frac{kleft(k+1right)}{2} +m$ for $0 le m le k$ fills the gaps between the triangle numbers



More explicitly, if we had a function which was in a sense the inverse of the triangle numbers, say $g(x)=bigl{lfloor} frac{sqrt{8x+1}-1}{2}bigr{rfloor}$ and another giving a sort of remainder, say $h(x)=x-frac{g(x)(g(x)+1)}2$, then we could construct an actual inverse of $f$ as $i:omega to omega^2$ with $i(x) = Big(h(x), g(x)-h(x)Big)$ in the sense that $i(f(n,k))=(n,k)$ and $f(i(x))=x$. If you have a two-way inverse then you have a bijection






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    great way to show that $f$ is surjective! I don't see how $g$ make sense as an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – Barak Ohana
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:00












  • $begingroup$
    @user3195363 for example $g(6)=3$ and $g(10)=4$ which is what you want when inverting triangle numbers. But it is only an inverse "in a sense" and one-way since you also have $g(7)=3$
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:05














1












1








1





$begingroup$

The intuitive argument is that $left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)$ is even and non-negative so clearly this is a function $omega^2 to omega$, while $f(0,k)=frac{kleft(k+1right)}{2}$ giving the triangle numbers $0,1,3,6,10, ldots$ for $k=0,1,2,3,4,ldots$, and so $f(m,k-m)=frac{kleft(k+1right)}{2} +m$ for $0 le m le k$ fills the gaps between the triangle numbers



More explicitly, if we had a function which was in a sense the inverse of the triangle numbers, say $g(x)=bigl{lfloor} frac{sqrt{8x+1}-1}{2}bigr{rfloor}$ and another giving a sort of remainder, say $h(x)=x-frac{g(x)(g(x)+1)}2$, then we could construct an actual inverse of $f$ as $i:omega to omega^2$ with $i(x) = Big(h(x), g(x)-h(x)Big)$ in the sense that $i(f(n,k))=(n,k)$ and $f(i(x))=x$. If you have a two-way inverse then you have a bijection






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



The intuitive argument is that $left(n+k+1right)left(n+kright)$ is even and non-negative so clearly this is a function $omega^2 to omega$, while $f(0,k)=frac{kleft(k+1right)}{2}$ giving the triangle numbers $0,1,3,6,10, ldots$ for $k=0,1,2,3,4,ldots$, and so $f(m,k-m)=frac{kleft(k+1right)}{2} +m$ for $0 le m le k$ fills the gaps between the triangle numbers



More explicitly, if we had a function which was in a sense the inverse of the triangle numbers, say $g(x)=bigl{lfloor} frac{sqrt{8x+1}-1}{2}bigr{rfloor}$ and another giving a sort of remainder, say $h(x)=x-frac{g(x)(g(x)+1)}2$, then we could construct an actual inverse of $f$ as $i:omega to omega^2$ with $i(x) = Big(h(x), g(x)-h(x)Big)$ in the sense that $i(f(n,k))=(n,k)$ and $f(i(x))=x$. If you have a two-way inverse then you have a bijection







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 23 '18 at 1:59

























answered Dec 23 '18 at 1:41









HenryHenry

100k480167




100k480167












  • $begingroup$
    great way to show that $f$ is surjective! I don't see how $g$ make sense as an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – Barak Ohana
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:00












  • $begingroup$
    @user3195363 for example $g(6)=3$ and $g(10)=4$ which is what you want when inverting triangle numbers. But it is only an inverse "in a sense" and one-way since you also have $g(7)=3$
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:05


















  • $begingroup$
    great way to show that $f$ is surjective! I don't see how $g$ make sense as an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – Barak Ohana
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:00












  • $begingroup$
    @user3195363 for example $g(6)=3$ and $g(10)=4$ which is what you want when inverting triangle numbers. But it is only an inverse "in a sense" and one-way since you also have $g(7)=3$
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Dec 23 '18 at 2:05
















$begingroup$
great way to show that $f$ is surjective! I don't see how $g$ make sense as an inverse.
$endgroup$
– Barak Ohana
Dec 23 '18 at 2:00






$begingroup$
great way to show that $f$ is surjective! I don't see how $g$ make sense as an inverse.
$endgroup$
– Barak Ohana
Dec 23 '18 at 2:00














$begingroup$
@user3195363 for example $g(6)=3$ and $g(10)=4$ which is what you want when inverting triangle numbers. But it is only an inverse "in a sense" and one-way since you also have $g(7)=3$
$endgroup$
– Henry
Dec 23 '18 at 2:05




$begingroup$
@user3195363 for example $g(6)=3$ and $g(10)=4$ which is what you want when inverting triangle numbers. But it is only an inverse "in a sense" and one-way since you also have $g(7)=3$
$endgroup$
– Henry
Dec 23 '18 at 2:05


















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