Comparing Improper Integrals Involving Infinity












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Question



From my current understanding: $K>J$ and $L>K$ , therefore $L>K>J$. How can I compare the first integral $I$ ?










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    Hint: $x < e^x$ so $I < ldots$.
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    – Robert Israel
    Jan 16 '13 at 4:12
















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$begingroup$


Question



From my current understanding: $K>J$ and $L>K$ , therefore $L>K>J$. How can I compare the first integral $I$ ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $x < e^x$ so $I < ldots$.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 16 '13 at 4:12














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Question



From my current understanding: $K>J$ and $L>K$ , therefore $L>K>J$. How can I compare the first integral $I$ ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Question



From my current understanding: $K>J$ and $L>K$ , therefore $L>K>J$. How can I compare the first integral $I$ ?







calculus integration convergence infinity






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edited Dec 23 '18 at 20:29









Glorfindel

3,41981830




3,41981830










asked Jan 16 '13 at 3:26









EngGenieEngGenie

12019




12019








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $x < e^x$ so $I < ldots$.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 16 '13 at 4:12














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $x < e^x$ so $I < ldots$.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Israel
    Jan 16 '13 at 4:12








1




1




$begingroup$
Hint: $x < e^x$ so $I < ldots$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Israel
Jan 16 '13 at 4:12




$begingroup$
Hint: $x < e^x$ so $I < ldots$.
$endgroup$
– Robert Israel
Jan 16 '13 at 4:12










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Robert's hint should answer your question.



I might go about the original problem a different way. Of $J$, $K$, and $L$, there is only one where the antiderivative is easy to compute, and it's easy to see whether that one converges. That observation eliminates several of the 6 alternatives given. Of those remaining, only one is not nonsense (e.g., (f) is nonsense since it deduces convergence from being bigger than something that converges).






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    $begingroup$

    Robert's hint should answer your question.



    I might go about the original problem a different way. Of $J$, $K$, and $L$, there is only one where the antiderivative is easy to compute, and it's easy to see whether that one converges. That observation eliminates several of the 6 alternatives given. Of those remaining, only one is not nonsense (e.g., (f) is nonsense since it deduces convergence from being bigger than something that converges).






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Robert's hint should answer your question.



      I might go about the original problem a different way. Of $J$, $K$, and $L$, there is only one where the antiderivative is easy to compute, and it's easy to see whether that one converges. That observation eliminates several of the 6 alternatives given. Of those remaining, only one is not nonsense (e.g., (f) is nonsense since it deduces convergence from being bigger than something that converges).






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Robert's hint should answer your question.



        I might go about the original problem a different way. Of $J$, $K$, and $L$, there is only one where the antiderivative is easy to compute, and it's easy to see whether that one converges. That observation eliminates several of the 6 alternatives given. Of those remaining, only one is not nonsense (e.g., (f) is nonsense since it deduces convergence from being bigger than something that converges).






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Robert's hint should answer your question.



        I might go about the original problem a different way. Of $J$, $K$, and $L$, there is only one where the antiderivative is easy to compute, and it's easy to see whether that one converges. That observation eliminates several of the 6 alternatives given. Of those remaining, only one is not nonsense (e.g., (f) is nonsense since it deduces convergence from being bigger than something that converges).







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        answered Jan 16 '13 at 5:24









        Gerry MyersonGerry Myerson

        147k8147300




        147k8147300






























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