Does $sumlimits_{n=0}^infty frac{e^nsin n}{n}$ converge or diverge? [closed]












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The comparison test does not work on this, so I'm stuck trying to find a way to prove that it diverges. I know it definitely diverges. Any solutions?










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closed as off-topic by Saad, KReiser, Cesareo, Brahadeesh, José Carlos Santos Dec 20 '18 at 14:51


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, KReiser, Cesareo, Brahadeesh, José Carlos Santos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 4




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    Can you see that the general terms of the series do not approach $0$ as $nto infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:15












  • $begingroup$
    No, I need to use a specific test to prove it
    $endgroup$
    – Jon Doe
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:17






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    A "specific test" to show divergence is to show that the general terms do not tend to $0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:18












  • $begingroup$
    I can't understand why this question was closed.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:28
















1












$begingroup$


The comparison test does not work on this, so I'm stuck trying to find a way to prove that it diverges. I know it definitely diverges. Any solutions?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Saad, KReiser, Cesareo, Brahadeesh, José Carlos Santos Dec 20 '18 at 14:51


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, KReiser, Cesareo, Brahadeesh, José Carlos Santos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Can you see that the general terms of the series do not approach $0$ as $nto infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:15












  • $begingroup$
    No, I need to use a specific test to prove it
    $endgroup$
    – Jon Doe
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:17






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    A "specific test" to show divergence is to show that the general terms do not tend to $0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:18












  • $begingroup$
    I can't understand why this question was closed.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:28














1












1








1





$begingroup$


The comparison test does not work on this, so I'm stuck trying to find a way to prove that it diverges. I know it definitely diverges. Any solutions?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




The comparison test does not work on this, so I'm stuck trying to find a way to prove that it diverges. I know it definitely diverges. Any solutions?







calculus divergent-series






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asked Dec 19 '18 at 16:11









Jon DoeJon Doe

122




122




closed as off-topic by Saad, KReiser, Cesareo, Brahadeesh, José Carlos Santos Dec 20 '18 at 14:51


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, KReiser, Cesareo, Brahadeesh, José Carlos Santos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







closed as off-topic by Saad, KReiser, Cesareo, Brahadeesh, José Carlos Santos Dec 20 '18 at 14:51


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Saad, KReiser, Cesareo, Brahadeesh, José Carlos Santos

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Can you see that the general terms of the series do not approach $0$ as $nto infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:15












  • $begingroup$
    No, I need to use a specific test to prove it
    $endgroup$
    – Jon Doe
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:17






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    A "specific test" to show divergence is to show that the general terms do not tend to $0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:18












  • $begingroup$
    I can't understand why this question was closed.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:28














  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Can you see that the general terms of the series do not approach $0$ as $nto infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:15












  • $begingroup$
    No, I need to use a specific test to prove it
    $endgroup$
    – Jon Doe
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:17






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    A "specific test" to show divergence is to show that the general terms do not tend to $0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:18












  • $begingroup$
    I can't understand why this question was closed.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Dec 22 '18 at 19:28








4




4




$begingroup$
Can you see that the general terms of the series do not approach $0$ as $nto infty$?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 19 '18 at 16:15






$begingroup$
Can you see that the general terms of the series do not approach $0$ as $nto infty$?
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 19 '18 at 16:15














$begingroup$
No, I need to use a specific test to prove it
$endgroup$
– Jon Doe
Dec 19 '18 at 16:17




$begingroup$
No, I need to use a specific test to prove it
$endgroup$
– Jon Doe
Dec 19 '18 at 16:17




4




4




$begingroup$
A "specific test" to show divergence is to show that the general terms do not tend to $0$.
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 19 '18 at 16:18






$begingroup$
A "specific test" to show divergence is to show that the general terms do not tend to $0$.
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 19 '18 at 16:18














$begingroup$
I can't understand why this question was closed.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Dec 22 '18 at 19:28




$begingroup$
I can't understand why this question was closed.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Dec 22 '18 at 19:28










7 Answers
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Consider the points $p_n=(cos n,sin n),$ $ n=1,2,dots $ on the unit circle. The $p_n$ march around the circle infinitely many times in steps of of arc length $1.$ Let $A$ denote the arc on the unit circle between the points $(1/sqrt 2,1/sqrt 2)$ and $(-1/sqrt 2,1/sqrt 2).$ The length of this arc is $pi/2>1.$ It is impossible for our sequence $p_n$ to jump over $A,$ as the $p_n$ are marching around in steps of arc length $1.$ Thus $p_nin A$ for infinitely many $n.$ For each such $n,$ we have $sin n ge 1/sqrt 2.$ It follows that $(e^nsin n)/n ge e^n/(sqrt 2cdot n)$ for infinitely many $n.$ Thus the terms of our series do not approach $0,$ which shows the series diverges.






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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    (+1) and happy holidays!
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks, this seems like a good answer but is beyond the scope of calculus 2... I could never think of this on my feet.
    $endgroup$
    – Jon Doe
    Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










  • $begingroup$
    @JonDoe Just curious … what part of this answer is beyond the scope of a "Calculus 2" course? There will be an integer contained in any interval that is larger than $1$. You know that $pi/2>1$. So, in particular, there will be an integer in each of the intervals $[2pi m+pi/4,2pi m +3pi/4]$. And in such an interval the value of the sine of the contained integer will exceed $1/sqrt2$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark Viola
    Dec 19 '18 at 17:26












  • $begingroup$
    @MarkViola Randomly thinking of "oh wait there are intervals 2pim + pi/4, 2pim + 3pi/4 set bounds to sinx. Let me use them!" Such is the same with integrals where say you have to add and subtract tan(x) or something to integrate it. It's not part of a student's mindset, particularly when they are not a math major.
    $endgroup$
    – Jon Doe
    Dec 19 '18 at 17:29






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @JonDoe I recast the proof slightly. Tell me if it helps.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Dec 19 '18 at 18:17



















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If $|sin(n),|lesinleft(frac12right)$, then $|cos(n),|gecosleft(frac12right)$ and
$$
begin{align}
|sin(n+1),|
&=|cos(n)sin(1)+sin(n)cos(1),|\
&gecosleft(tfrac12right)sin(1)-sinleft(tfrac12right)cos(1)\
&=sinleft(tfrac12right)
end{align}
$$

This means that either $|sin(n),|gesinleft(frac12right)$ or $|sin(n+1),|gesinleft(frac12right)$.



Since $e^ngt1+n$, we know that $frac{e^n}ngt1$.



Therefore, either $left|frac{e^nsin(n)}nright|gesinleft(frac12right)$ or $left|frac{e^{n+1}sin(n+1)}{n+1}right|gesinleft(frac12right)$. That is, the terms do not tend to $0$.






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    Take the root test. We have $limsup_{ntoinfty}(|e^nsin(n)|)^{1/n} = e> 1$ so it diverges.






    share|cite|improve this answer











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    • $begingroup$
      This is a convenient approach, assuming that the asker is familiar with the notion of a $limsup$. Also, the fact that $sin(n)$ has $1$ as its limsup as $n to infty$ is non-trivial.
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      – Omnomnomnom
      Dec 19 '18 at 16:24










    • $begingroup$
      @kmini How does one show that $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$ as $nto infty$?
      $endgroup$
      – Mark Viola
      Dec 19 '18 at 16:25










    • $begingroup$
      I'm not familiar with limsup. Where does the / n go?
      $endgroup$
      – Jon Doe
      Dec 19 '18 at 16:47










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      @MarkViola: note that $limsupsqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$ does not mean the same as $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$.
      $endgroup$
      – TonyK
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:10






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      @TonyK Yes, I know the difference, Tony. So, I'll write more precisely to appease you. How does one show that $limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$?
      $endgroup$
      – Mark Viola
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:13





















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    $$ lim_{n rightarrow infty} frac{e^nsin n}{n} neq 0 $$
    So the series diverges using the nth term test for divergence.






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    • $begingroup$
      You need to show that $sin(n)$ does not approach $0$.
      $endgroup$
      – Mark Viola
      Dec 19 '18 at 16:24










    • $begingroup$
      Yes indeed @MarkViola that is needed
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      – Ahmad Bazzi
      Dec 19 '18 at 16:26



















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    It suffices to show that $sin(n)$ fails to approach $0$, which means that your series fails to converge by the $n$th term test (that is, the sequence of summands fails to approach $0$).



    Some proofs of that $sin(n)$ fails to converge to $0$ are given here.



    I would suspect, however, that if you are learning about testing for convergence/divergence of series for the first time, you would not be expected to prove such a result. If it comes up, I would state without proof that $sin(n)$ does not have a limit as $nto infty$, just as the function $f(x) = sin(x)$ fails to have a limit as $x to infty$.






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    • $begingroup$
      That is a very weak argument. For example, $sin(pi n)$ does have a limit as $ntoinfty$, even though $f(x)=sin(pi x)$ doesn't.
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      – TonyK
      Dec 19 '18 at 16:55










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      @TonyK I agree. However, I think that proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of the typical "calc II" course in which this problem has probably appeared.
      $endgroup$
      – Omnomnomnom
      Dec 19 '18 at 16:58










    • $begingroup$
      You mean proving $sin(n)notto 0$.
      $endgroup$
      – TonyK
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










    • $begingroup$
      @TonyK right. I suppose, though, proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of any course in mathematics
      $endgroup$
      – Omnomnomnom
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:09



















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    The series does not converge because the general term does not tend to zero. To prove this, it is enough to show that $sin n$ does not converge. Here is an elementary way to do it: suppose that $sin nto xin mathbb R$.



    Then, of course,



    $sin 2nto x$ and $sin (2(n+1))to x.$



    And so



    $sin nto xRightarrow cos 2nto 1-2x^2Rightarrow cos (2(n+1))to 1-2x^2$



    But now,



    $sin 2=sin(2(n + 1) - 2n)=sin(2(n + 1))cdotcos 2n-sin 2ncdot cos (2(n+1))to 0 $, which is absurd.






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    • $begingroup$
      Yes, thank you.
      $endgroup$
      – Matematleta
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:15



















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    Assuming $frac{e^n sin n}{n}to 0$ as $nto +infty$ we have $left|sin(n)right|leq frac{n}{2e^n}leqsinfrac{1}{2^n}$ for any $n$ sufficiently large, hence $left|cos nright|geq cosfrac{1}{2^n}$. On the other hand such assumptions lead to
    $$ left|sin(n+1)right|geq left|left|sin(n)right|cos(1)-left|cos(n)right|sin(1)right|geq frac{4}{5} $$
    for any $n$ sufficiently large, contradiction.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      7 Answers
      7






      active

      oldest

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      7 Answers
      7






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

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      active

      oldest

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      7












      $begingroup$

      Consider the points $p_n=(cos n,sin n),$ $ n=1,2,dots $ on the unit circle. The $p_n$ march around the circle infinitely many times in steps of of arc length $1.$ Let $A$ denote the arc on the unit circle between the points $(1/sqrt 2,1/sqrt 2)$ and $(-1/sqrt 2,1/sqrt 2).$ The length of this arc is $pi/2>1.$ It is impossible for our sequence $p_n$ to jump over $A,$ as the $p_n$ are marching around in steps of arc length $1.$ Thus $p_nin A$ for infinitely many $n.$ For each such $n,$ we have $sin n ge 1/sqrt 2.$ It follows that $(e^nsin n)/n ge e^n/(sqrt 2cdot n)$ for infinitely many $n.$ Thus the terms of our series do not approach $0,$ which shows the series diverges.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) and happy holidays!
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










      • $begingroup$
        Thanks, this seems like a good answer but is beyond the scope of calculus 2... I could never think of this on my feet.
        $endgroup$
        – Jon Doe
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










      • $begingroup$
        @JonDoe Just curious … what part of this answer is beyond the scope of a "Calculus 2" course? There will be an integer contained in any interval that is larger than $1$. You know that $pi/2>1$. So, in particular, there will be an integer in each of the intervals $[2pi m+pi/4,2pi m +3pi/4]$. And in such an interval the value of the sine of the contained integer will exceed $1/sqrt2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:26












      • $begingroup$
        @MarkViola Randomly thinking of "oh wait there are intervals 2pim + pi/4, 2pim + 3pi/4 set bounds to sinx. Let me use them!" Such is the same with integrals where say you have to add and subtract tan(x) or something to integrate it. It's not part of a student's mindset, particularly when they are not a math major.
        $endgroup$
        – Jon Doe
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:29






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @JonDoe I recast the proof slightly. Tell me if it helps.
        $endgroup$
        – zhw.
        Dec 19 '18 at 18:17
















      7












      $begingroup$

      Consider the points $p_n=(cos n,sin n),$ $ n=1,2,dots $ on the unit circle. The $p_n$ march around the circle infinitely many times in steps of of arc length $1.$ Let $A$ denote the arc on the unit circle between the points $(1/sqrt 2,1/sqrt 2)$ and $(-1/sqrt 2,1/sqrt 2).$ The length of this arc is $pi/2>1.$ It is impossible for our sequence $p_n$ to jump over $A,$ as the $p_n$ are marching around in steps of arc length $1.$ Thus $p_nin A$ for infinitely many $n.$ For each such $n,$ we have $sin n ge 1/sqrt 2.$ It follows that $(e^nsin n)/n ge e^n/(sqrt 2cdot n)$ for infinitely many $n.$ Thus the terms of our series do not approach $0,$ which shows the series diverges.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) and happy holidays!
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










      • $begingroup$
        Thanks, this seems like a good answer but is beyond the scope of calculus 2... I could never think of this on my feet.
        $endgroup$
        – Jon Doe
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










      • $begingroup$
        @JonDoe Just curious … what part of this answer is beyond the scope of a "Calculus 2" course? There will be an integer contained in any interval that is larger than $1$. You know that $pi/2>1$. So, in particular, there will be an integer in each of the intervals $[2pi m+pi/4,2pi m +3pi/4]$. And in such an interval the value of the sine of the contained integer will exceed $1/sqrt2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:26












      • $begingroup$
        @MarkViola Randomly thinking of "oh wait there are intervals 2pim + pi/4, 2pim + 3pi/4 set bounds to sinx. Let me use them!" Such is the same with integrals where say you have to add and subtract tan(x) or something to integrate it. It's not part of a student's mindset, particularly when they are not a math major.
        $endgroup$
        – Jon Doe
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:29






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @JonDoe I recast the proof slightly. Tell me if it helps.
        $endgroup$
        – zhw.
        Dec 19 '18 at 18:17














      7












      7








      7





      $begingroup$

      Consider the points $p_n=(cos n,sin n),$ $ n=1,2,dots $ on the unit circle. The $p_n$ march around the circle infinitely many times in steps of of arc length $1.$ Let $A$ denote the arc on the unit circle between the points $(1/sqrt 2,1/sqrt 2)$ and $(-1/sqrt 2,1/sqrt 2).$ The length of this arc is $pi/2>1.$ It is impossible for our sequence $p_n$ to jump over $A,$ as the $p_n$ are marching around in steps of arc length $1.$ Thus $p_nin A$ for infinitely many $n.$ For each such $n,$ we have $sin n ge 1/sqrt 2.$ It follows that $(e^nsin n)/n ge e^n/(sqrt 2cdot n)$ for infinitely many $n.$ Thus the terms of our series do not approach $0,$ which shows the series diverges.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      Consider the points $p_n=(cos n,sin n),$ $ n=1,2,dots $ on the unit circle. The $p_n$ march around the circle infinitely many times in steps of of arc length $1.$ Let $A$ denote the arc on the unit circle between the points $(1/sqrt 2,1/sqrt 2)$ and $(-1/sqrt 2,1/sqrt 2).$ The length of this arc is $pi/2>1.$ It is impossible for our sequence $p_n$ to jump over $A,$ as the $p_n$ are marching around in steps of arc length $1.$ Thus $p_nin A$ for infinitely many $n.$ For each such $n,$ we have $sin n ge 1/sqrt 2.$ It follows that $(e^nsin n)/n ge e^n/(sqrt 2cdot n)$ for infinitely many $n.$ Thus the terms of our series do not approach $0,$ which shows the series diverges.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Dec 21 '18 at 17:28

























      answered Dec 19 '18 at 17:02









      zhw.zhw.

      73.1k43175




      73.1k43175








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) and happy holidays!
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










      • $begingroup$
        Thanks, this seems like a good answer but is beyond the scope of calculus 2... I could never think of this on my feet.
        $endgroup$
        – Jon Doe
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










      • $begingroup$
        @JonDoe Just curious … what part of this answer is beyond the scope of a "Calculus 2" course? There will be an integer contained in any interval that is larger than $1$. You know that $pi/2>1$. So, in particular, there will be an integer in each of the intervals $[2pi m+pi/4,2pi m +3pi/4]$. And in such an interval the value of the sine of the contained integer will exceed $1/sqrt2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:26












      • $begingroup$
        @MarkViola Randomly thinking of "oh wait there are intervals 2pim + pi/4, 2pim + 3pi/4 set bounds to sinx. Let me use them!" Such is the same with integrals where say you have to add and subtract tan(x) or something to integrate it. It's not part of a student's mindset, particularly when they are not a math major.
        $endgroup$
        – Jon Doe
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:29






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @JonDoe I recast the proof slightly. Tell me if it helps.
        $endgroup$
        – zhw.
        Dec 19 '18 at 18:17














      • 1




        $begingroup$
        (+1) and happy holidays!
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










      • $begingroup$
        Thanks, this seems like a good answer but is beyond the scope of calculus 2... I could never think of this on my feet.
        $endgroup$
        – Jon Doe
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










      • $begingroup$
        @JonDoe Just curious … what part of this answer is beyond the scope of a "Calculus 2" course? There will be an integer contained in any interval that is larger than $1$. You know that $pi/2>1$. So, in particular, there will be an integer in each of the intervals $[2pi m+pi/4,2pi m +3pi/4]$. And in such an interval the value of the sine of the contained integer will exceed $1/sqrt2$.
        $endgroup$
        – Mark Viola
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:26












      • $begingroup$
        @MarkViola Randomly thinking of "oh wait there are intervals 2pim + pi/4, 2pim + 3pi/4 set bounds to sinx. Let me use them!" Such is the same with integrals where say you have to add and subtract tan(x) or something to integrate it. It's not part of a student's mindset, particularly when they are not a math major.
        $endgroup$
        – Jon Doe
        Dec 19 '18 at 17:29






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @JonDoe I recast the proof slightly. Tell me if it helps.
        $endgroup$
        – zhw.
        Dec 19 '18 at 18:17








      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      (+1) and happy holidays!
      $endgroup$
      – Mark Viola
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:08




      $begingroup$
      (+1) and happy holidays!
      $endgroup$
      – Mark Viola
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:08












      $begingroup$
      Thanks, this seems like a good answer but is beyond the scope of calculus 2... I could never think of this on my feet.
      $endgroup$
      – Jon Doe
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:08




      $begingroup$
      Thanks, this seems like a good answer but is beyond the scope of calculus 2... I could never think of this on my feet.
      $endgroup$
      – Jon Doe
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:08












      $begingroup$
      @JonDoe Just curious … what part of this answer is beyond the scope of a "Calculus 2" course? There will be an integer contained in any interval that is larger than $1$. You know that $pi/2>1$. So, in particular, there will be an integer in each of the intervals $[2pi m+pi/4,2pi m +3pi/4]$. And in such an interval the value of the sine of the contained integer will exceed $1/sqrt2$.
      $endgroup$
      – Mark Viola
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:26






      $begingroup$
      @JonDoe Just curious … what part of this answer is beyond the scope of a "Calculus 2" course? There will be an integer contained in any interval that is larger than $1$. You know that $pi/2>1$. So, in particular, there will be an integer in each of the intervals $[2pi m+pi/4,2pi m +3pi/4]$. And in such an interval the value of the sine of the contained integer will exceed $1/sqrt2$.
      $endgroup$
      – Mark Viola
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:26














      $begingroup$
      @MarkViola Randomly thinking of "oh wait there are intervals 2pim + pi/4, 2pim + 3pi/4 set bounds to sinx. Let me use them!" Such is the same with integrals where say you have to add and subtract tan(x) or something to integrate it. It's not part of a student's mindset, particularly when they are not a math major.
      $endgroup$
      – Jon Doe
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:29




      $begingroup$
      @MarkViola Randomly thinking of "oh wait there are intervals 2pim + pi/4, 2pim + 3pi/4 set bounds to sinx. Let me use them!" Such is the same with integrals where say you have to add and subtract tan(x) or something to integrate it. It's not part of a student's mindset, particularly when they are not a math major.
      $endgroup$
      – Jon Doe
      Dec 19 '18 at 17:29




      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      @JonDoe I recast the proof slightly. Tell me if it helps.
      $endgroup$
      – zhw.
      Dec 19 '18 at 18:17




      $begingroup$
      @JonDoe I recast the proof slightly. Tell me if it helps.
      $endgroup$
      – zhw.
      Dec 19 '18 at 18:17











      2












      $begingroup$

      If $|sin(n),|lesinleft(frac12right)$, then $|cos(n),|gecosleft(frac12right)$ and
      $$
      begin{align}
      |sin(n+1),|
      &=|cos(n)sin(1)+sin(n)cos(1),|\
      &gecosleft(tfrac12right)sin(1)-sinleft(tfrac12right)cos(1)\
      &=sinleft(tfrac12right)
      end{align}
      $$

      This means that either $|sin(n),|gesinleft(frac12right)$ or $|sin(n+1),|gesinleft(frac12right)$.



      Since $e^ngt1+n$, we know that $frac{e^n}ngt1$.



      Therefore, either $left|frac{e^nsin(n)}nright|gesinleft(frac12right)$ or $left|frac{e^{n+1}sin(n+1)}{n+1}right|gesinleft(frac12right)$. That is, the terms do not tend to $0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        If $|sin(n),|lesinleft(frac12right)$, then $|cos(n),|gecosleft(frac12right)$ and
        $$
        begin{align}
        |sin(n+1),|
        &=|cos(n)sin(1)+sin(n)cos(1),|\
        &gecosleft(tfrac12right)sin(1)-sinleft(tfrac12right)cos(1)\
        &=sinleft(tfrac12right)
        end{align}
        $$

        This means that either $|sin(n),|gesinleft(frac12right)$ or $|sin(n+1),|gesinleft(frac12right)$.



        Since $e^ngt1+n$, we know that $frac{e^n}ngt1$.



        Therefore, either $left|frac{e^nsin(n)}nright|gesinleft(frac12right)$ or $left|frac{e^{n+1}sin(n+1)}{n+1}right|gesinleft(frac12right)$. That is, the terms do not tend to $0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          If $|sin(n),|lesinleft(frac12right)$, then $|cos(n),|gecosleft(frac12right)$ and
          $$
          begin{align}
          |sin(n+1),|
          &=|cos(n)sin(1)+sin(n)cos(1),|\
          &gecosleft(tfrac12right)sin(1)-sinleft(tfrac12right)cos(1)\
          &=sinleft(tfrac12right)
          end{align}
          $$

          This means that either $|sin(n),|gesinleft(frac12right)$ or $|sin(n+1),|gesinleft(frac12right)$.



          Since $e^ngt1+n$, we know that $frac{e^n}ngt1$.



          Therefore, either $left|frac{e^nsin(n)}nright|gesinleft(frac12right)$ or $left|frac{e^{n+1}sin(n+1)}{n+1}right|gesinleft(frac12right)$. That is, the terms do not tend to $0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          If $|sin(n),|lesinleft(frac12right)$, then $|cos(n),|gecosleft(frac12right)$ and
          $$
          begin{align}
          |sin(n+1),|
          &=|cos(n)sin(1)+sin(n)cos(1),|\
          &gecosleft(tfrac12right)sin(1)-sinleft(tfrac12right)cos(1)\
          &=sinleft(tfrac12right)
          end{align}
          $$

          This means that either $|sin(n),|gesinleft(frac12right)$ or $|sin(n+1),|gesinleft(frac12right)$.



          Since $e^ngt1+n$, we know that $frac{e^n}ngt1$.



          Therefore, either $left|frac{e^nsin(n)}nright|gesinleft(frac12right)$ or $left|frac{e^{n+1}sin(n+1)}{n+1}right|gesinleft(frac12right)$. That is, the terms do not tend to $0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 20 '18 at 14:26

























          answered Dec 19 '18 at 17:44









          robjohnrobjohn

          268k27308633




          268k27308633























              1












              $begingroup$

              Take the root test. We have $limsup_{ntoinfty}(|e^nsin(n)|)^{1/n} = e> 1$ so it diverges.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                This is a convenient approach, assuming that the asker is familiar with the notion of a $limsup$. Also, the fact that $sin(n)$ has $1$ as its limsup as $n to infty$ is non-trivial.
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:24










              • $begingroup$
                @kmini How does one show that $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$ as $nto infty$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:25










              • $begingroup$
                I'm not familiar with limsup. Where does the / n go?
                $endgroup$
                – Jon Doe
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:47










              • $begingroup$
                @MarkViola: note that $limsupsqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$ does not mean the same as $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:10






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @TonyK Yes, I know the difference, Tony. So, I'll write more precisely to appease you. How does one show that $limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:13


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Take the root test. We have $limsup_{ntoinfty}(|e^nsin(n)|)^{1/n} = e> 1$ so it diverges.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                This is a convenient approach, assuming that the asker is familiar with the notion of a $limsup$. Also, the fact that $sin(n)$ has $1$ as its limsup as $n to infty$ is non-trivial.
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:24










              • $begingroup$
                @kmini How does one show that $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$ as $nto infty$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:25










              • $begingroup$
                I'm not familiar with limsup. Where does the / n go?
                $endgroup$
                – Jon Doe
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:47










              • $begingroup$
                @MarkViola: note that $limsupsqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$ does not mean the same as $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:10






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @TonyK Yes, I know the difference, Tony. So, I'll write more precisely to appease you. How does one show that $limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:13
















              1












              1








              1





              $begingroup$

              Take the root test. We have $limsup_{ntoinfty}(|e^nsin(n)|)^{1/n} = e> 1$ so it diverges.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              Take the root test. We have $limsup_{ntoinfty}(|e^nsin(n)|)^{1/n} = e> 1$ so it diverges.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Dec 19 '18 at 16:21









              Omnomnomnom

              128k791184




              128k791184










              answered Dec 19 '18 at 16:21









              kminikmini

              913




              913












              • $begingroup$
                This is a convenient approach, assuming that the asker is familiar with the notion of a $limsup$. Also, the fact that $sin(n)$ has $1$ as its limsup as $n to infty$ is non-trivial.
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:24










              • $begingroup$
                @kmini How does one show that $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$ as $nto infty$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:25










              • $begingroup$
                I'm not familiar with limsup. Where does the / n go?
                $endgroup$
                – Jon Doe
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:47










              • $begingroup$
                @MarkViola: note that $limsupsqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$ does not mean the same as $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:10






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @TonyK Yes, I know the difference, Tony. So, I'll write more precisely to appease you. How does one show that $limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:13




















              • $begingroup$
                This is a convenient approach, assuming that the asker is familiar with the notion of a $limsup$. Also, the fact that $sin(n)$ has $1$ as its limsup as $n to infty$ is non-trivial.
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:24










              • $begingroup$
                @kmini How does one show that $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$ as $nto infty$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:25










              • $begingroup$
                I'm not familiar with limsup. Where does the / n go?
                $endgroup$
                – Jon Doe
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:47










              • $begingroup$
                @MarkViola: note that $limsupsqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$ does not mean the same as $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:10






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @TonyK Yes, I know the difference, Tony. So, I'll write more precisely to appease you. How does one show that $limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$?
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:13


















              $begingroup$
              This is a convenient approach, assuming that the asker is familiar with the notion of a $limsup$. Also, the fact that $sin(n)$ has $1$ as its limsup as $n to infty$ is non-trivial.
              $endgroup$
              – Omnomnomnom
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:24




              $begingroup$
              This is a convenient approach, assuming that the asker is familiar with the notion of a $limsup$. Also, the fact that $sin(n)$ has $1$ as its limsup as $n to infty$ is non-trivial.
              $endgroup$
              – Omnomnomnom
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:24












              $begingroup$
              @kmini How does one show that $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$ as $nto infty$?
              $endgroup$
              – Mark Viola
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:25




              $begingroup$
              @kmini How does one show that $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$ as $nto infty$?
              $endgroup$
              – Mark Viola
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:25












              $begingroup$
              I'm not familiar with limsup. Where does the / n go?
              $endgroup$
              – Jon Doe
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:47




              $begingroup$
              I'm not familiar with limsup. Where does the / n go?
              $endgroup$
              – Jon Doe
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:47












              $begingroup$
              @MarkViola: note that $limsupsqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$ does not mean the same as $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$.
              $endgroup$
              – TonyK
              Dec 19 '18 at 17:10




              $begingroup$
              @MarkViola: note that $limsupsqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$ does not mean the same as $sqrt[n]{sin(n)}to 1$.
              $endgroup$
              – TonyK
              Dec 19 '18 at 17:10




              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              @TonyK Yes, I know the difference, Tony. So, I'll write more precisely to appease you. How does one show that $limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$?
              $endgroup$
              – Mark Viola
              Dec 19 '18 at 17:13






              $begingroup$
              @TonyK Yes, I know the difference, Tony. So, I'll write more precisely to appease you. How does one show that $limsup_{ntoinfty}sqrt[n]{sin(n)}=1$?
              $endgroup$
              – Mark Viola
              Dec 19 '18 at 17:13













              0












              $begingroup$

              $$ lim_{n rightarrow infty} frac{e^nsin n}{n} neq 0 $$
              So the series diverges using the nth term test for divergence.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                You need to show that $sin(n)$ does not approach $0$.
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:24










              • $begingroup$
                Yes indeed @MarkViola that is needed
                $endgroup$
                – Ahmad Bazzi
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:26
















              0












              $begingroup$

              $$ lim_{n rightarrow infty} frac{e^nsin n}{n} neq 0 $$
              So the series diverges using the nth term test for divergence.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                You need to show that $sin(n)$ does not approach $0$.
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:24










              • $begingroup$
                Yes indeed @MarkViola that is needed
                $endgroup$
                – Ahmad Bazzi
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:26














              0












              0








              0





              $begingroup$

              $$ lim_{n rightarrow infty} frac{e^nsin n}{n} neq 0 $$
              So the series diverges using the nth term test for divergence.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              $$ lim_{n rightarrow infty} frac{e^nsin n}{n} neq 0 $$
              So the series diverges using the nth term test for divergence.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Dec 19 '18 at 16:19









              Ahmad BazziAhmad Bazzi

              8,2962824




              8,2962824












              • $begingroup$
                You need to show that $sin(n)$ does not approach $0$.
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:24










              • $begingroup$
                Yes indeed @MarkViola that is needed
                $endgroup$
                – Ahmad Bazzi
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:26


















              • $begingroup$
                You need to show that $sin(n)$ does not approach $0$.
                $endgroup$
                – Mark Viola
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:24










              • $begingroup$
                Yes indeed @MarkViola that is needed
                $endgroup$
                – Ahmad Bazzi
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:26
















              $begingroup$
              You need to show that $sin(n)$ does not approach $0$.
              $endgroup$
              – Mark Viola
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:24




              $begingroup$
              You need to show that $sin(n)$ does not approach $0$.
              $endgroup$
              – Mark Viola
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:24












              $begingroup$
              Yes indeed @MarkViola that is needed
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmad Bazzi
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:26




              $begingroup$
              Yes indeed @MarkViola that is needed
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmad Bazzi
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:26











              0












              $begingroup$

              It suffices to show that $sin(n)$ fails to approach $0$, which means that your series fails to converge by the $n$th term test (that is, the sequence of summands fails to approach $0$).



              Some proofs of that $sin(n)$ fails to converge to $0$ are given here.



              I would suspect, however, that if you are learning about testing for convergence/divergence of series for the first time, you would not be expected to prove such a result. If it comes up, I would state without proof that $sin(n)$ does not have a limit as $nto infty$, just as the function $f(x) = sin(x)$ fails to have a limit as $x to infty$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                That is a very weak argument. For example, $sin(pi n)$ does have a limit as $ntoinfty$, even though $f(x)=sin(pi x)$ doesn't.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:55










              • $begingroup$
                @TonyK I agree. However, I think that proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of the typical "calc II" course in which this problem has probably appeared.
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:58










              • $begingroup$
                You mean proving $sin(n)notto 0$.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










              • $begingroup$
                @TonyK right. I suppose, though, proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of any course in mathematics
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:09
















              0












              $begingroup$

              It suffices to show that $sin(n)$ fails to approach $0$, which means that your series fails to converge by the $n$th term test (that is, the sequence of summands fails to approach $0$).



              Some proofs of that $sin(n)$ fails to converge to $0$ are given here.



              I would suspect, however, that if you are learning about testing for convergence/divergence of series for the first time, you would not be expected to prove such a result. If it comes up, I would state without proof that $sin(n)$ does not have a limit as $nto infty$, just as the function $f(x) = sin(x)$ fails to have a limit as $x to infty$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                That is a very weak argument. For example, $sin(pi n)$ does have a limit as $ntoinfty$, even though $f(x)=sin(pi x)$ doesn't.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:55










              • $begingroup$
                @TonyK I agree. However, I think that proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of the typical "calc II" course in which this problem has probably appeared.
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:58










              • $begingroup$
                You mean proving $sin(n)notto 0$.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










              • $begingroup$
                @TonyK right. I suppose, though, proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of any course in mathematics
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:09














              0












              0








              0





              $begingroup$

              It suffices to show that $sin(n)$ fails to approach $0$, which means that your series fails to converge by the $n$th term test (that is, the sequence of summands fails to approach $0$).



              Some proofs of that $sin(n)$ fails to converge to $0$ are given here.



              I would suspect, however, that if you are learning about testing for convergence/divergence of series for the first time, you would not be expected to prove such a result. If it comes up, I would state without proof that $sin(n)$ does not have a limit as $nto infty$, just as the function $f(x) = sin(x)$ fails to have a limit as $x to infty$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              It suffices to show that $sin(n)$ fails to approach $0$, which means that your series fails to converge by the $n$th term test (that is, the sequence of summands fails to approach $0$).



              Some proofs of that $sin(n)$ fails to converge to $0$ are given here.



              I would suspect, however, that if you are learning about testing for convergence/divergence of series for the first time, you would not be expected to prove such a result. If it comes up, I would state without proof that $sin(n)$ does not have a limit as $nto infty$, just as the function $f(x) = sin(x)$ fails to have a limit as $x to infty$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Dec 19 '18 at 16:46









              OmnomnomnomOmnomnomnom

              128k791184




              128k791184












              • $begingroup$
                That is a very weak argument. For example, $sin(pi n)$ does have a limit as $ntoinfty$, even though $f(x)=sin(pi x)$ doesn't.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:55










              • $begingroup$
                @TonyK I agree. However, I think that proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of the typical "calc II" course in which this problem has probably appeared.
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:58










              • $begingroup$
                You mean proving $sin(n)notto 0$.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










              • $begingroup$
                @TonyK right. I suppose, though, proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of any course in mathematics
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:09


















              • $begingroup$
                That is a very weak argument. For example, $sin(pi n)$ does have a limit as $ntoinfty$, even though $f(x)=sin(pi x)$ doesn't.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:55










              • $begingroup$
                @TonyK I agree. However, I think that proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of the typical "calc II" course in which this problem has probably appeared.
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 16:58










              • $begingroup$
                You mean proving $sin(n)notto 0$.
                $endgroup$
                – TonyK
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:08










              • $begingroup$
                @TonyK right. I suppose, though, proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of any course in mathematics
                $endgroup$
                – Omnomnomnom
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:09
















              $begingroup$
              That is a very weak argument. For example, $sin(pi n)$ does have a limit as $ntoinfty$, even though $f(x)=sin(pi x)$ doesn't.
              $endgroup$
              – TonyK
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:55




              $begingroup$
              That is a very weak argument. For example, $sin(pi n)$ does have a limit as $ntoinfty$, even though $f(x)=sin(pi x)$ doesn't.
              $endgroup$
              – TonyK
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:55












              $begingroup$
              @TonyK I agree. However, I think that proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of the typical "calc II" course in which this problem has probably appeared.
              $endgroup$
              – Omnomnomnom
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:58




              $begingroup$
              @TonyK I agree. However, I think that proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of the typical "calc II" course in which this problem has probably appeared.
              $endgroup$
              – Omnomnomnom
              Dec 19 '18 at 16:58












              $begingroup$
              You mean proving $sin(n)notto 0$.
              $endgroup$
              – TonyK
              Dec 19 '18 at 17:08




              $begingroup$
              You mean proving $sin(n)notto 0$.
              $endgroup$
              – TonyK
              Dec 19 '18 at 17:08












              $begingroup$
              @TonyK right. I suppose, though, proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of any course in mathematics
              $endgroup$
              – Omnomnomnom
              Dec 19 '18 at 17:09




              $begingroup$
              @TonyK right. I suppose, though, proving that $sin(n) to 0$ is beyond the scope of any course in mathematics
              $endgroup$
              – Omnomnomnom
              Dec 19 '18 at 17:09











              0












              $begingroup$

              The series does not converge because the general term does not tend to zero. To prove this, it is enough to show that $sin n$ does not converge. Here is an elementary way to do it: suppose that $sin nto xin mathbb R$.



              Then, of course,



              $sin 2nto x$ and $sin (2(n+1))to x.$



              And so



              $sin nto xRightarrow cos 2nto 1-2x^2Rightarrow cos (2(n+1))to 1-2x^2$



              But now,



              $sin 2=sin(2(n + 1) - 2n)=sin(2(n + 1))cdotcos 2n-sin 2ncdot cos (2(n+1))to 0 $, which is absurd.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                Yes, thank you.
                $endgroup$
                – Matematleta
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:15
















              0












              $begingroup$

              The series does not converge because the general term does not tend to zero. To prove this, it is enough to show that $sin n$ does not converge. Here is an elementary way to do it: suppose that $sin nto xin mathbb R$.



              Then, of course,



              $sin 2nto x$ and $sin (2(n+1))to x.$



              And so



              $sin nto xRightarrow cos 2nto 1-2x^2Rightarrow cos (2(n+1))to 1-2x^2$



              But now,



              $sin 2=sin(2(n + 1) - 2n)=sin(2(n + 1))cdotcos 2n-sin 2ncdot cos (2(n+1))to 0 $, which is absurd.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                Yes, thank you.
                $endgroup$
                – Matematleta
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:15














              0












              0








              0





              $begingroup$

              The series does not converge because the general term does not tend to zero. To prove this, it is enough to show that $sin n$ does not converge. Here is an elementary way to do it: suppose that $sin nto xin mathbb R$.



              Then, of course,



              $sin 2nto x$ and $sin (2(n+1))to x.$



              And so



              $sin nto xRightarrow cos 2nto 1-2x^2Rightarrow cos (2(n+1))to 1-2x^2$



              But now,



              $sin 2=sin(2(n + 1) - 2n)=sin(2(n + 1))cdotcos 2n-sin 2ncdot cos (2(n+1))to 0 $, which is absurd.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              The series does not converge because the general term does not tend to zero. To prove this, it is enough to show that $sin n$ does not converge. Here is an elementary way to do it: suppose that $sin nto xin mathbb R$.



              Then, of course,



              $sin 2nto x$ and $sin (2(n+1))to x.$



              And so



              $sin nto xRightarrow cos 2nto 1-2x^2Rightarrow cos (2(n+1))to 1-2x^2$



              But now,



              $sin 2=sin(2(n + 1) - 2n)=sin(2(n + 1))cdotcos 2n-sin 2ncdot cos (2(n+1))to 0 $, which is absurd.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Dec 19 '18 at 17:14

























              answered Dec 19 '18 at 16:49









              MatematletaMatematleta

              11.1k2918




              11.1k2918












              • $begingroup$
                Yes, thank you.
                $endgroup$
                – Matematleta
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:15


















              • $begingroup$
                Yes, thank you.
                $endgroup$
                – Matematleta
                Dec 19 '18 at 17:15
















              $begingroup$
              Yes, thank you.
              $endgroup$
              – Matematleta
              Dec 19 '18 at 17:15




              $begingroup$
              Yes, thank you.
              $endgroup$
              – Matematleta
              Dec 19 '18 at 17:15











              0












              $begingroup$

              Assuming $frac{e^n sin n}{n}to 0$ as $nto +infty$ we have $left|sin(n)right|leq frac{n}{2e^n}leqsinfrac{1}{2^n}$ for any $n$ sufficiently large, hence $left|cos nright|geq cosfrac{1}{2^n}$. On the other hand such assumptions lead to
              $$ left|sin(n+1)right|geq left|left|sin(n)right|cos(1)-left|cos(n)right|sin(1)right|geq frac{4}{5} $$
              for any $n$ sufficiently large, contradiction.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Assuming $frac{e^n sin n}{n}to 0$ as $nto +infty$ we have $left|sin(n)right|leq frac{n}{2e^n}leqsinfrac{1}{2^n}$ for any $n$ sufficiently large, hence $left|cos nright|geq cosfrac{1}{2^n}$. On the other hand such assumptions lead to
                $$ left|sin(n+1)right|geq left|left|sin(n)right|cos(1)-left|cos(n)right|sin(1)right|geq frac{4}{5} $$
                for any $n$ sufficiently large, contradiction.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Assuming $frac{e^n sin n}{n}to 0$ as $nto +infty$ we have $left|sin(n)right|leq frac{n}{2e^n}leqsinfrac{1}{2^n}$ for any $n$ sufficiently large, hence $left|cos nright|geq cosfrac{1}{2^n}$. On the other hand such assumptions lead to
                  $$ left|sin(n+1)right|geq left|left|sin(n)right|cos(1)-left|cos(n)right|sin(1)right|geq frac{4}{5} $$
                  for any $n$ sufficiently large, contradiction.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Assuming $frac{e^n sin n}{n}to 0$ as $nto +infty$ we have $left|sin(n)right|leq frac{n}{2e^n}leqsinfrac{1}{2^n}$ for any $n$ sufficiently large, hence $left|cos nright|geq cosfrac{1}{2^n}$. On the other hand such assumptions lead to
                  $$ left|sin(n+1)right|geq left|left|sin(n)right|cos(1)-left|cos(n)right|sin(1)right|geq frac{4}{5} $$
                  for any $n$ sufficiently large, contradiction.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 19 '18 at 20:01









                  Jack D'AurizioJack D'Aurizio

                  290k33282662




                  290k33282662















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