Summation of series and Taylor series are giving different results
$begingroup$
$A = frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$B = 1 + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{7} + cdots$
$A + B = 1 + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$2A = 1 + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$2A = A + B$
$A - B = 0$
$0 = 1 - frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} - frac{1}{6} + cdots$
Using Taylor expansion for $ln(1+x)$
$ln(2) = 1 -frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} - frac{1}{6} + cdots$
Where did I go wrong ?
sequences-and-series summation taylor-expansion
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$A = frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$B = 1 + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{7} + cdots$
$A + B = 1 + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$2A = 1 + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$2A = A + B$
$A - B = 0$
$0 = 1 - frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} - frac{1}{6} + cdots$
Using Taylor expansion for $ln(1+x)$
$ln(2) = 1 -frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} - frac{1}{6} + cdots$
Where did I go wrong ?
sequences-and-series summation taylor-expansion
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
You are manipulating divergent series, hence the confusion. Take a look on Riemann theorem.
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:33
1
$begingroup$
Look here for a detailed explanation on why this can't be done.
$endgroup$
– Viktor Glombik
Dec 19 '18 at 17:36
$begingroup$
@ViktorGlombik This Mathologer video is also suitable for this question!
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:39
$begingroup$
You're ignoring the fact that $A$ and $B$ are not finite numbers. Essentially, they are both $infty$ so $A-B$ is meaningless and cancellation cannot be performed as you have done.
$endgroup$
– MPW
Dec 19 '18 at 17:46
2
$begingroup$
Look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$. While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$. In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(2)$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 19 '18 at 18:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$A = frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$B = 1 + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{7} + cdots$
$A + B = 1 + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$2A = 1 + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$2A = A + B$
$A - B = 0$
$0 = 1 - frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} - frac{1}{6} + cdots$
Using Taylor expansion for $ln(1+x)$
$ln(2) = 1 -frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} - frac{1}{6} + cdots$
Where did I go wrong ?
sequences-and-series summation taylor-expansion
$endgroup$
$A = frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$B = 1 + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{7} + cdots$
$A + B = 1 + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$2A = 1 + frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} + frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} + frac{1}{6} + cdots$
$2A = A + B$
$A - B = 0$
$0 = 1 - frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} - frac{1}{6} + cdots$
Using Taylor expansion for $ln(1+x)$
$ln(2) = 1 -frac{1}{2} + frac{1}{3} - frac{1}{4} + frac{1}{5} - frac{1}{6} + cdots$
Where did I go wrong ?
sequences-and-series summation taylor-expansion
sequences-and-series summation taylor-expansion
edited Dec 19 '18 at 18:23
Davide Giraudo
126k16151263
126k16151263
asked Dec 19 '18 at 17:30
Akshat BaranwalAkshat Baranwal
84
84
2
$begingroup$
You are manipulating divergent series, hence the confusion. Take a look on Riemann theorem.
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:33
1
$begingroup$
Look here for a detailed explanation on why this can't be done.
$endgroup$
– Viktor Glombik
Dec 19 '18 at 17:36
$begingroup$
@ViktorGlombik This Mathologer video is also suitable for this question!
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:39
$begingroup$
You're ignoring the fact that $A$ and $B$ are not finite numbers. Essentially, they are both $infty$ so $A-B$ is meaningless and cancellation cannot be performed as you have done.
$endgroup$
– MPW
Dec 19 '18 at 17:46
2
$begingroup$
Look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$. While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$. In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(2)$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 19 '18 at 18:20
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
You are manipulating divergent series, hence the confusion. Take a look on Riemann theorem.
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:33
1
$begingroup$
Look here for a detailed explanation on why this can't be done.
$endgroup$
– Viktor Glombik
Dec 19 '18 at 17:36
$begingroup$
@ViktorGlombik This Mathologer video is also suitable for this question!
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:39
$begingroup$
You're ignoring the fact that $A$ and $B$ are not finite numbers. Essentially, they are both $infty$ so $A-B$ is meaningless and cancellation cannot be performed as you have done.
$endgroup$
– MPW
Dec 19 '18 at 17:46
2
$begingroup$
Look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$. While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$. In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(2)$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 19 '18 at 18:20
2
2
$begingroup$
You are manipulating divergent series, hence the confusion. Take a look on Riemann theorem.
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:33
$begingroup$
You are manipulating divergent series, hence the confusion. Take a look on Riemann theorem.
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:33
1
1
$begingroup$
Look here for a detailed explanation on why this can't be done.
$endgroup$
– Viktor Glombik
Dec 19 '18 at 17:36
$begingroup$
Look here for a detailed explanation on why this can't be done.
$endgroup$
– Viktor Glombik
Dec 19 '18 at 17:36
$begingroup$
@ViktorGlombik This Mathologer video is also suitable for this question!
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:39
$begingroup$
@ViktorGlombik This Mathologer video is also suitable for this question!
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:39
$begingroup$
You're ignoring the fact that $A$ and $B$ are not finite numbers. Essentially, they are both $infty$ so $A-B$ is meaningless and cancellation cannot be performed as you have done.
$endgroup$
– MPW
Dec 19 '18 at 17:46
$begingroup$
You're ignoring the fact that $A$ and $B$ are not finite numbers. Essentially, they are both $infty$ so $A-B$ is meaningless and cancellation cannot be performed as you have done.
$endgroup$
– MPW
Dec 19 '18 at 17:46
2
2
$begingroup$
Look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$. While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$. In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(2)$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 19 '18 at 18:20
$begingroup$
Look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$. While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$. In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(2)$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 19 '18 at 18:20
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
What you did wrong was to assume that you can deal with divergent series as if they were convergent. If you say that
$$
A=frac12+frac14+frac16+cdots
$$
then $A$ is a name of the series, but it is not a number (since the series diverges).
Therefore
$$
1+frac12+frac13+frac14+cdots
$$
is just another (divergent) series and it is an unfortunate option to call it $2A$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As others have already pointed out, the series $sum_{n=1}^infty frac1n$ and $sum_{n=1}^infty frac1{2n-1}$ diverge and manipulating divergent series is not legitimate.
Another way to analyze this is to look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$.
While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=-sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$ (In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(1/2)$).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
What you did wrong was to assume that you can deal with divergent series as if they were convergent. If you say that
$$
A=frac12+frac14+frac16+cdots
$$
then $A$ is a name of the series, but it is not a number (since the series diverges).
Therefore
$$
1+frac12+frac13+frac14+cdots
$$
is just another (divergent) series and it is an unfortunate option to call it $2A$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What you did wrong was to assume that you can deal with divergent series as if they were convergent. If you say that
$$
A=frac12+frac14+frac16+cdots
$$
then $A$ is a name of the series, but it is not a number (since the series diverges).
Therefore
$$
1+frac12+frac13+frac14+cdots
$$
is just another (divergent) series and it is an unfortunate option to call it $2A$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What you did wrong was to assume that you can deal with divergent series as if they were convergent. If you say that
$$
A=frac12+frac14+frac16+cdots
$$
then $A$ is a name of the series, but it is not a number (since the series diverges).
Therefore
$$
1+frac12+frac13+frac14+cdots
$$
is just another (divergent) series and it is an unfortunate option to call it $2A$.
$endgroup$
What you did wrong was to assume that you can deal with divergent series as if they were convergent. If you say that
$$
A=frac12+frac14+frac16+cdots
$$
then $A$ is a name of the series, but it is not a number (since the series diverges).
Therefore
$$
1+frac12+frac13+frac14+cdots
$$
is just another (divergent) series and it is an unfortunate option to call it $2A$.
edited Dec 19 '18 at 17:38
amWhy
1
1
answered Dec 19 '18 at 17:34
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
161k22128232
161k22128232
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As others have already pointed out, the series $sum_{n=1}^infty frac1n$ and $sum_{n=1}^infty frac1{2n-1}$ diverge and manipulating divergent series is not legitimate.
Another way to analyze this is to look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$.
While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=-sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$ (In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(1/2)$).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As others have already pointed out, the series $sum_{n=1}^infty frac1n$ and $sum_{n=1}^infty frac1{2n-1}$ diverge and manipulating divergent series is not legitimate.
Another way to analyze this is to look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$.
While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=-sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$ (In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(1/2)$).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
As others have already pointed out, the series $sum_{n=1}^infty frac1n$ and $sum_{n=1}^infty frac1{2n-1}$ diverge and manipulating divergent series is not legitimate.
Another way to analyze this is to look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$.
While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=-sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$ (In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(1/2)$).
$endgroup$
As others have already pointed out, the series $sum_{n=1}^infty frac1n$ and $sum_{n=1}^infty frac1{2n-1}$ diverge and manipulating divergent series is not legitimate.
Another way to analyze this is to look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$.
While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=-sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$ (In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(1/2)$).
edited Dec 20 '18 at 1:34
answered Dec 19 '18 at 18:27
Mark ViolaMark Viola
132k1276174
132k1276174
add a comment |
add a comment |
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2
$begingroup$
You are manipulating divergent series, hence the confusion. Take a look on Riemann theorem.
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:33
1
$begingroup$
Look here for a detailed explanation on why this can't be done.
$endgroup$
– Viktor Glombik
Dec 19 '18 at 17:36
$begingroup$
@ViktorGlombik This Mathologer video is also suitable for this question!
$endgroup$
– rafa11111
Dec 19 '18 at 17:39
$begingroup$
You're ignoring the fact that $A$ and $B$ are not finite numbers. Essentially, they are both $infty$ so $A-B$ is meaningless and cancellation cannot be performed as you have done.
$endgroup$
– MPW
Dec 19 '18 at 17:46
2
$begingroup$
Look at the partial sums $A_N=sum_{n=1}^{N} frac{1}{2n}$ and $B_N=sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{2n-1}$. While $A_N+B_N =sum_{n=1}^{2N} frac1n$, we have $A_N-B_N=sum_{n=N+1}^{2N}frac1n ne 0$. In fact, we have $lim_{Ntoinfty}(A_N-B_N)=log(2)$
$endgroup$
– Mark Viola
Dec 19 '18 at 18:20