Prove logarithmic inequality:
$begingroup$
Prove $${log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_2}{a_1}}quad+quad {log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_3}{a_2}}quad+quad...quad+quad {log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_1}{a_{2016}}}quad ge frac{1}{5+{log_2}63}$$
(It's 2016th root, not $log_{2016}$ to the power of 2016! I didn't know how to write 2016th root).
I have a solution, but I don't understand it. It says in the solution that the equation above is equivalent to
$$log_{2016}frac{(a_1+a_2)(a_2+a_3)...(a_{2016}+a_1)}{a_1a_2...a_{2016}} ge log_{2016}2^{2016}$$
I can get the left side to
$$frac1{2016}log_{2016}frac{(a_1+a_2)(a_2+a_3)...(a_{2016}+a_1)}{a_1a_2...a_{2016}}$$
But I don't know how to get the right side as in the solution. How do I get that result?
algebra-precalculus
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Prove $${log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_2}{a_1}}quad+quad {log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_3}{a_2}}quad+quad...quad+quad {log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_1}{a_{2016}}}quad ge frac{1}{5+{log_2}63}$$
(It's 2016th root, not $log_{2016}$ to the power of 2016! I didn't know how to write 2016th root).
I have a solution, but I don't understand it. It says in the solution that the equation above is equivalent to
$$log_{2016}frac{(a_1+a_2)(a_2+a_3)...(a_{2016}+a_1)}{a_1a_2...a_{2016}} ge log_{2016}2^{2016}$$
I can get the left side to
$$frac1{2016}log_{2016}frac{(a_1+a_2)(a_2+a_3)...(a_{2016}+a_1)}{a_1a_2...a_{2016}}$$
But I don't know how to get the right side as in the solution. How do I get that result?
algebra-precalculus
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Prove $${log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_2}{a_1}}quad+quad {log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_3}{a_2}}quad+quad...quad+quad {log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_1}{a_{2016}}}quad ge frac{1}{5+{log_2}63}$$
(It's 2016th root, not $log_{2016}$ to the power of 2016! I didn't know how to write 2016th root).
I have a solution, but I don't understand it. It says in the solution that the equation above is equivalent to
$$log_{2016}frac{(a_1+a_2)(a_2+a_3)...(a_{2016}+a_1)}{a_1a_2...a_{2016}} ge log_{2016}2^{2016}$$
I can get the left side to
$$frac1{2016}log_{2016}frac{(a_1+a_2)(a_2+a_3)...(a_{2016}+a_1)}{a_1a_2...a_{2016}}$$
But I don't know how to get the right side as in the solution. How do I get that result?
algebra-precalculus
$endgroup$
Prove $${log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_2}{a_1}}quad+quad {log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_3}{a_2}}quad+quad...quad+quad {log_{2016}}^{2016}sqrt{1+frac{a_1}{a_{2016}}}quad ge frac{1}{5+{log_2}63}$$
(It's 2016th root, not $log_{2016}$ to the power of 2016! I didn't know how to write 2016th root).
I have a solution, but I don't understand it. It says in the solution that the equation above is equivalent to
$$log_{2016}frac{(a_1+a_2)(a_2+a_3)...(a_{2016}+a_1)}{a_1a_2...a_{2016}} ge log_{2016}2^{2016}$$
I can get the left side to
$$frac1{2016}log_{2016}frac{(a_1+a_2)(a_2+a_3)...(a_{2016}+a_1)}{a_1a_2...a_{2016}}$$
But I don't know how to get the right side as in the solution. How do I get that result?
algebra-precalculus
algebra-precalculus
asked Dec 10 '18 at 22:35
PeroPero
1277
1277
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
We have that
$$frac{1}{5+{log_2}63}=frac{1}{log_2 32+{log_2}63}=frac1{log_2 (32cdot 63)}=frac1{log_2 2016}=log_{2016}2$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Oh I see :). After we get this we can prove that the new inequality is true using $A ge G$. In the solution it says that this inequality is true if and only if $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Why is it not true for any value of $a_1, a_2,...,a_{2016}$?
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 22:58
$begingroup$
Could you add your derivation by AM-GM? (I suppose you are referrign to that with $Age G$)
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:05
$begingroup$
We can rewrite the second equation in my question above as (if we remove $log_{2016}$): $(a_1+a_2)...(a_{2016}+a_1) ge 2^{2016} cdot a_1...a_{2016}$, and this can be easily proven by solving AM-GM for $a_1,a_2$; then for $a_2,a_3$; and so on and then multiplying.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:11
$begingroup$
@Pero Then I think it suffices to recall that equality holds for AM-GM when $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Its just a property of AM-GM.
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Yeah that confuses me, because we are working with inequalities, there's no equality anywhere, so it seemed weird that they would state that in the solution. I guess they mentioned it like a special case. I understand now thanks for your answers.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:19
|
show 1 more comment
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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1 Answer
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votes
$begingroup$
We have that
$$frac{1}{5+{log_2}63}=frac{1}{log_2 32+{log_2}63}=frac1{log_2 (32cdot 63)}=frac1{log_2 2016}=log_{2016}2$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Oh I see :). After we get this we can prove that the new inequality is true using $A ge G$. In the solution it says that this inequality is true if and only if $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Why is it not true for any value of $a_1, a_2,...,a_{2016}$?
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 22:58
$begingroup$
Could you add your derivation by AM-GM? (I suppose you are referrign to that with $Age G$)
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:05
$begingroup$
We can rewrite the second equation in my question above as (if we remove $log_{2016}$): $(a_1+a_2)...(a_{2016}+a_1) ge 2^{2016} cdot a_1...a_{2016}$, and this can be easily proven by solving AM-GM for $a_1,a_2$; then for $a_2,a_3$; and so on and then multiplying.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:11
$begingroup$
@Pero Then I think it suffices to recall that equality holds for AM-GM when $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Its just a property of AM-GM.
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Yeah that confuses me, because we are working with inequalities, there's no equality anywhere, so it seemed weird that they would state that in the solution. I guess they mentioned it like a special case. I understand now thanks for your answers.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:19
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
We have that
$$frac{1}{5+{log_2}63}=frac{1}{log_2 32+{log_2}63}=frac1{log_2 (32cdot 63)}=frac1{log_2 2016}=log_{2016}2$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Oh I see :). After we get this we can prove that the new inequality is true using $A ge G$. In the solution it says that this inequality is true if and only if $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Why is it not true for any value of $a_1, a_2,...,a_{2016}$?
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 22:58
$begingroup$
Could you add your derivation by AM-GM? (I suppose you are referrign to that with $Age G$)
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:05
$begingroup$
We can rewrite the second equation in my question above as (if we remove $log_{2016}$): $(a_1+a_2)...(a_{2016}+a_1) ge 2^{2016} cdot a_1...a_{2016}$, and this can be easily proven by solving AM-GM for $a_1,a_2$; then for $a_2,a_3$; and so on and then multiplying.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:11
$begingroup$
@Pero Then I think it suffices to recall that equality holds for AM-GM when $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Its just a property of AM-GM.
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Yeah that confuses me, because we are working with inequalities, there's no equality anywhere, so it seemed weird that they would state that in the solution. I guess they mentioned it like a special case. I understand now thanks for your answers.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:19
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
We have that
$$frac{1}{5+{log_2}63}=frac{1}{log_2 32+{log_2}63}=frac1{log_2 (32cdot 63)}=frac1{log_2 2016}=log_{2016}2$$
$endgroup$
We have that
$$frac{1}{5+{log_2}63}=frac{1}{log_2 32+{log_2}63}=frac1{log_2 (32cdot 63)}=frac1{log_2 2016}=log_{2016}2$$
answered Dec 10 '18 at 22:38
gimusigimusi
92.8k84494
92.8k84494
$begingroup$
Oh I see :). After we get this we can prove that the new inequality is true using $A ge G$. In the solution it says that this inequality is true if and only if $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Why is it not true for any value of $a_1, a_2,...,a_{2016}$?
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 22:58
$begingroup$
Could you add your derivation by AM-GM? (I suppose you are referrign to that with $Age G$)
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:05
$begingroup$
We can rewrite the second equation in my question above as (if we remove $log_{2016}$): $(a_1+a_2)...(a_{2016}+a_1) ge 2^{2016} cdot a_1...a_{2016}$, and this can be easily proven by solving AM-GM for $a_1,a_2$; then for $a_2,a_3$; and so on and then multiplying.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:11
$begingroup$
@Pero Then I think it suffices to recall that equality holds for AM-GM when $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Its just a property of AM-GM.
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Yeah that confuses me, because we are working with inequalities, there's no equality anywhere, so it seemed weird that they would state that in the solution. I guess they mentioned it like a special case. I understand now thanks for your answers.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:19
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Oh I see :). After we get this we can prove that the new inequality is true using $A ge G$. In the solution it says that this inequality is true if and only if $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Why is it not true for any value of $a_1, a_2,...,a_{2016}$?
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 22:58
$begingroup$
Could you add your derivation by AM-GM? (I suppose you are referrign to that with $Age G$)
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:05
$begingroup$
We can rewrite the second equation in my question above as (if we remove $log_{2016}$): $(a_1+a_2)...(a_{2016}+a_1) ge 2^{2016} cdot a_1...a_{2016}$, and this can be easily proven by solving AM-GM for $a_1,a_2$; then for $a_2,a_3$; and so on and then multiplying.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:11
$begingroup$
@Pero Then I think it suffices to recall that equality holds for AM-GM when $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Its just a property of AM-GM.
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Yeah that confuses me, because we are working with inequalities, there's no equality anywhere, so it seemed weird that they would state that in the solution. I guess they mentioned it like a special case. I understand now thanks for your answers.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:19
$begingroup$
Oh I see :). After we get this we can prove that the new inequality is true using $A ge G$. In the solution it says that this inequality is true if and only if $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Why is it not true for any value of $a_1, a_2,...,a_{2016}$?
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 22:58
$begingroup$
Oh I see :). After we get this we can prove that the new inequality is true using $A ge G$. In the solution it says that this inequality is true if and only if $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Why is it not true for any value of $a_1, a_2,...,a_{2016}$?
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 22:58
$begingroup$
Could you add your derivation by AM-GM? (I suppose you are referrign to that with $Age G$)
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:05
$begingroup$
Could you add your derivation by AM-GM? (I suppose you are referrign to that with $Age G$)
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:05
$begingroup$
We can rewrite the second equation in my question above as (if we remove $log_{2016}$): $(a_1+a_2)...(a_{2016}+a_1) ge 2^{2016} cdot a_1...a_{2016}$, and this can be easily proven by solving AM-GM for $a_1,a_2$; then for $a_2,a_3$; and so on and then multiplying.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:11
$begingroup$
We can rewrite the second equation in my question above as (if we remove $log_{2016}$): $(a_1+a_2)...(a_{2016}+a_1) ge 2^{2016} cdot a_1...a_{2016}$, and this can be easily proven by solving AM-GM for $a_1,a_2$; then for $a_2,a_3$; and so on and then multiplying.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:11
$begingroup$
@Pero Then I think it suffices to recall that equality holds for AM-GM when $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Its just a property of AM-GM.
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
@Pero Then I think it suffices to recall that equality holds for AM-GM when $a_1=a_2=...=a_{2016}$. Its just a property of AM-GM.
$endgroup$
– gimusi
Dec 10 '18 at 23:13
$begingroup$
Yeah that confuses me, because we are working with inequalities, there's no equality anywhere, so it seemed weird that they would state that in the solution. I guess they mentioned it like a special case. I understand now thanks for your answers.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:19
$begingroup$
Yeah that confuses me, because we are working with inequalities, there's no equality anywhere, so it seemed weird that they would state that in the solution. I guess they mentioned it like a special case. I understand now thanks for your answers.
$endgroup$
– Pero
Dec 10 '18 at 23:19
|
show 1 more comment
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