PDF of Z = XY for Jointly Uniform (X,Y) with Parabolic Region











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"Suppose that $(X,Y)$ is uniformly distributed on the subset of $; mathbb R^2$ defined by the inequalities $0 < X < 1$ and $0 < Y < X^2$.



Determine the probability density function of the random variable $Z = XY$"



The $X^2$ in the $Y$ interval is seriously throwing me off and I'm not sure where to start. I have



$$f_{X,Y}(x,y) = 3 qquad (x,y) epsilon;(0,1)times(0,X^2)$$
$$f_{X,Y}(x,y) = 0 qquad qquad qquad quad otherwise$$



But I do not know where to go from here. I need to be able to explain my answer so I'd like to understand how/why it works. Thanks!










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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    "Suppose that $(X,Y)$ is uniformly distributed on the subset of $; mathbb R^2$ defined by the inequalities $0 < X < 1$ and $0 < Y < X^2$.



    Determine the probability density function of the random variable $Z = XY$"



    The $X^2$ in the $Y$ interval is seriously throwing me off and I'm not sure where to start. I have



    $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) = 3 qquad (x,y) epsilon;(0,1)times(0,X^2)$$
    $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) = 0 qquad qquad qquad quad otherwise$$



    But I do not know where to go from here. I need to be able to explain my answer so I'd like to understand how/why it works. Thanks!










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      "Suppose that $(X,Y)$ is uniformly distributed on the subset of $; mathbb R^2$ defined by the inequalities $0 < X < 1$ and $0 < Y < X^2$.



      Determine the probability density function of the random variable $Z = XY$"



      The $X^2$ in the $Y$ interval is seriously throwing me off and I'm not sure where to start. I have



      $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) = 3 qquad (x,y) epsilon;(0,1)times(0,X^2)$$
      $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) = 0 qquad qquad qquad quad otherwise$$



      But I do not know where to go from here. I need to be able to explain my answer so I'd like to understand how/why it works. Thanks!










      share|cite|improve this question















      "Suppose that $(X,Y)$ is uniformly distributed on the subset of $; mathbb R^2$ defined by the inequalities $0 < X < 1$ and $0 < Y < X^2$.



      Determine the probability density function of the random variable $Z = XY$"



      The $X^2$ in the $Y$ interval is seriously throwing me off and I'm not sure where to start. I have



      $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) = 3 qquad (x,y) epsilon;(0,1)times(0,X^2)$$
      $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) = 0 qquad qquad qquad quad otherwise$$



      But I do not know where to go from here. I need to be able to explain my answer so I'd like to understand how/why it works. Thanks!







      probability transformation independence uniform-distribution






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      edited Nov 21 at 21:33

























      asked Nov 21 at 21:12









      Angus Pointer

      186




      186






















          2 Answers
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          accepted










          You have found that$f_{X,Y}(x,y)=3cdotmathbf 1_{0<x<1, 0<y<x^2}$ . $checkmark$



          From there use the Jacobian Transformation Theorem.



          $$begin{align}f_{X,Z}(x,z) &= begin{Vmatrix}dfrac{partial[x,z/x]}{partial[x,z]}end{Vmatrix}~f_{X,Y}(x,z/x)\[1ex] &= dfrac 1{lvert xrvert}cdot 3cdotmathbf 1_{0< x< 1~,~ 0< z/x< x^2}\[1ex] &= dfrac 3{x}cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1~,~ sqrt[3]z< x< 1}end{align}$$



          After which integration with respect to $x$ finds the marginal distribution. (Notice the support)




          $$begin{align}f_Z(z) &= int_Bbb R f_{X,Z}(x,z)~mathsf d x\[1ex] &= int_{sqrt[3]z}^1frac 3x~mathsf d xcdotmathbf 1_{0<z< 1}\[1ex] &= -3ln(sqrt[3]z)cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1}\[1ex] &= -ln(z)cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1}end{align}$$







          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! Could you please explain what the 1 (0 < z < 1) means?
            – Angus Pointer
            Nov 22 at 15:46








          • 1




            It is an Indicator random variable, which is equal to 1 when the index is true and zero otherwise.
            – Graham Kemp
            Nov 22 at 20:04


















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          I've looked over some examples and believe I have a solution.



          $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) =
          begin{cases}
          3 &&& text{for} quad0<X<1, & 0<Y<X^2 \
          0 &&& text{otherwise}
          end{cases}
          $$



          Then,



          $$F_Z(z) = begin{cases}
          0 &&& Z leq 0 \
          Bbb P (Z leq z) = Bbb P (XY leq z) = Bbb P(Y leq frac{1}{X}z) &&& 0<Z<X^2 \
          1 &&& Z geq X^2
          end{cases}
          $$



          Our support region is $$A = {(X,Y); |; 0 < X < 1,; ; 0 < Y < X^2} cap {(X,Y) ;| ;Y leq frac{1}{X} z}$$
          Integrating $f_{X,Y}(x,y)$ twice over this region, where the two "curves" $Y=X^2$ and $Y = frac{1}{X}z$ intersect at $(z^{frac{1}{3}},z^{frac{2}{3}})$



          $$ Bbb P(Y leq frac{1}{X}z) = iint_A3 dx dy = 3intlimits^{z^{frac{1}{3}}}_0intlimits^{x^{2}}_0 dy dx + 3intlimits^{1}_{z^{frac{1}{3}}}intlimits^{frac{z}{x}}_{0} dy dx \
          = x^3 biggrvert_{0}^{z^{frac{1}{3}}}+3z ln{x}biggrvert^0_{z^{frac{1}{3}}} = z - 3zln{z^{frac{1}{3}}} = z(1-ln{z})$$

          So we have;
          $$F_Z(z) = begin{cases} 0 & Zleq 0 \
          z(1-ln{z}) & 0 < Z < X^2 \
          1 & Zgeq X^2
          end{cases}$$



          then differentiate to obtain $f_X(x)$;



          $$f_X(x) = begin{cases}
          -ln{z} & 0 < Z < X^2 \
          0 & text{otherwise}
          end{cases}$$



          I'm still unsure about my interval for Z, but otherwise I believe this is correct?






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            $Z$ will be supported over $(0,1)$, [the bounds should not mention either $X$ or $Y$, but be the result of their bounds, and we have $0< XY< 1cdot1^2$], and of course you are looking for $f_Z(z)$ when you differentiate, rather than $f_X(x)$.
            – Graham Kemp
            Nov 22 at 3:12













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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
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          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          You have found that$f_{X,Y}(x,y)=3cdotmathbf 1_{0<x<1, 0<y<x^2}$ . $checkmark$



          From there use the Jacobian Transformation Theorem.



          $$begin{align}f_{X,Z}(x,z) &= begin{Vmatrix}dfrac{partial[x,z/x]}{partial[x,z]}end{Vmatrix}~f_{X,Y}(x,z/x)\[1ex] &= dfrac 1{lvert xrvert}cdot 3cdotmathbf 1_{0< x< 1~,~ 0< z/x< x^2}\[1ex] &= dfrac 3{x}cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1~,~ sqrt[3]z< x< 1}end{align}$$



          After which integration with respect to $x$ finds the marginal distribution. (Notice the support)




          $$begin{align}f_Z(z) &= int_Bbb R f_{X,Z}(x,z)~mathsf d x\[1ex] &= int_{sqrt[3]z}^1frac 3x~mathsf d xcdotmathbf 1_{0<z< 1}\[1ex] &= -3ln(sqrt[3]z)cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1}\[1ex] &= -ln(z)cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1}end{align}$$







          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! Could you please explain what the 1 (0 < z < 1) means?
            – Angus Pointer
            Nov 22 at 15:46








          • 1




            It is an Indicator random variable, which is equal to 1 when the index is true and zero otherwise.
            – Graham Kemp
            Nov 22 at 20:04















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          You have found that$f_{X,Y}(x,y)=3cdotmathbf 1_{0<x<1, 0<y<x^2}$ . $checkmark$



          From there use the Jacobian Transformation Theorem.



          $$begin{align}f_{X,Z}(x,z) &= begin{Vmatrix}dfrac{partial[x,z/x]}{partial[x,z]}end{Vmatrix}~f_{X,Y}(x,z/x)\[1ex] &= dfrac 1{lvert xrvert}cdot 3cdotmathbf 1_{0< x< 1~,~ 0< z/x< x^2}\[1ex] &= dfrac 3{x}cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1~,~ sqrt[3]z< x< 1}end{align}$$



          After which integration with respect to $x$ finds the marginal distribution. (Notice the support)




          $$begin{align}f_Z(z) &= int_Bbb R f_{X,Z}(x,z)~mathsf d x\[1ex] &= int_{sqrt[3]z}^1frac 3x~mathsf d xcdotmathbf 1_{0<z< 1}\[1ex] &= -3ln(sqrt[3]z)cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1}\[1ex] &= -ln(z)cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1}end{align}$$







          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! Could you please explain what the 1 (0 < z < 1) means?
            – Angus Pointer
            Nov 22 at 15:46








          • 1




            It is an Indicator random variable, which is equal to 1 when the index is true and zero otherwise.
            – Graham Kemp
            Nov 22 at 20:04













          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          You have found that$f_{X,Y}(x,y)=3cdotmathbf 1_{0<x<1, 0<y<x^2}$ . $checkmark$



          From there use the Jacobian Transformation Theorem.



          $$begin{align}f_{X,Z}(x,z) &= begin{Vmatrix}dfrac{partial[x,z/x]}{partial[x,z]}end{Vmatrix}~f_{X,Y}(x,z/x)\[1ex] &= dfrac 1{lvert xrvert}cdot 3cdotmathbf 1_{0< x< 1~,~ 0< z/x< x^2}\[1ex] &= dfrac 3{x}cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1~,~ sqrt[3]z< x< 1}end{align}$$



          After which integration with respect to $x$ finds the marginal distribution. (Notice the support)




          $$begin{align}f_Z(z) &= int_Bbb R f_{X,Z}(x,z)~mathsf d x\[1ex] &= int_{sqrt[3]z}^1frac 3x~mathsf d xcdotmathbf 1_{0<z< 1}\[1ex] &= -3ln(sqrt[3]z)cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1}\[1ex] &= -ln(z)cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1}end{align}$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          You have found that$f_{X,Y}(x,y)=3cdotmathbf 1_{0<x<1, 0<y<x^2}$ . $checkmark$



          From there use the Jacobian Transformation Theorem.



          $$begin{align}f_{X,Z}(x,z) &= begin{Vmatrix}dfrac{partial[x,z/x]}{partial[x,z]}end{Vmatrix}~f_{X,Y}(x,z/x)\[1ex] &= dfrac 1{lvert xrvert}cdot 3cdotmathbf 1_{0< x< 1~,~ 0< z/x< x^2}\[1ex] &= dfrac 3{x}cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1~,~ sqrt[3]z< x< 1}end{align}$$



          After which integration with respect to $x$ finds the marginal distribution. (Notice the support)




          $$begin{align}f_Z(z) &= int_Bbb R f_{X,Z}(x,z)~mathsf d x\[1ex] &= int_{sqrt[3]z}^1frac 3x~mathsf d xcdotmathbf 1_{0<z< 1}\[1ex] &= -3ln(sqrt[3]z)cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1}\[1ex] &= -ln(z)cdotmathbf 1_{0< z< 1}end{align}$$








          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 22 at 3:09









          Graham Kemp

          84.6k43378




          84.6k43378












          • Thanks! Could you please explain what the 1 (0 < z < 1) means?
            – Angus Pointer
            Nov 22 at 15:46








          • 1




            It is an Indicator random variable, which is equal to 1 when the index is true and zero otherwise.
            – Graham Kemp
            Nov 22 at 20:04


















          • Thanks! Could you please explain what the 1 (0 < z < 1) means?
            – Angus Pointer
            Nov 22 at 15:46








          • 1




            It is an Indicator random variable, which is equal to 1 when the index is true and zero otherwise.
            – Graham Kemp
            Nov 22 at 20:04
















          Thanks! Could you please explain what the 1 (0 < z < 1) means?
          – Angus Pointer
          Nov 22 at 15:46






          Thanks! Could you please explain what the 1 (0 < z < 1) means?
          – Angus Pointer
          Nov 22 at 15:46






          1




          1




          It is an Indicator random variable, which is equal to 1 when the index is true and zero otherwise.
          – Graham Kemp
          Nov 22 at 20:04




          It is an Indicator random variable, which is equal to 1 when the index is true and zero otherwise.
          – Graham Kemp
          Nov 22 at 20:04










          up vote
          1
          down vote













          I've looked over some examples and believe I have a solution.



          $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) =
          begin{cases}
          3 &&& text{for} quad0<X<1, & 0<Y<X^2 \
          0 &&& text{otherwise}
          end{cases}
          $$



          Then,



          $$F_Z(z) = begin{cases}
          0 &&& Z leq 0 \
          Bbb P (Z leq z) = Bbb P (XY leq z) = Bbb P(Y leq frac{1}{X}z) &&& 0<Z<X^2 \
          1 &&& Z geq X^2
          end{cases}
          $$



          Our support region is $$A = {(X,Y); |; 0 < X < 1,; ; 0 < Y < X^2} cap {(X,Y) ;| ;Y leq frac{1}{X} z}$$
          Integrating $f_{X,Y}(x,y)$ twice over this region, where the two "curves" $Y=X^2$ and $Y = frac{1}{X}z$ intersect at $(z^{frac{1}{3}},z^{frac{2}{3}})$



          $$ Bbb P(Y leq frac{1}{X}z) = iint_A3 dx dy = 3intlimits^{z^{frac{1}{3}}}_0intlimits^{x^{2}}_0 dy dx + 3intlimits^{1}_{z^{frac{1}{3}}}intlimits^{frac{z}{x}}_{0} dy dx \
          = x^3 biggrvert_{0}^{z^{frac{1}{3}}}+3z ln{x}biggrvert^0_{z^{frac{1}{3}}} = z - 3zln{z^{frac{1}{3}}} = z(1-ln{z})$$

          So we have;
          $$F_Z(z) = begin{cases} 0 & Zleq 0 \
          z(1-ln{z}) & 0 < Z < X^2 \
          1 & Zgeq X^2
          end{cases}$$



          then differentiate to obtain $f_X(x)$;



          $$f_X(x) = begin{cases}
          -ln{z} & 0 < Z < X^2 \
          0 & text{otherwise}
          end{cases}$$



          I'm still unsure about my interval for Z, but otherwise I believe this is correct?






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            $Z$ will be supported over $(0,1)$, [the bounds should not mention either $X$ or $Y$, but be the result of their bounds, and we have $0< XY< 1cdot1^2$], and of course you are looking for $f_Z(z)$ when you differentiate, rather than $f_X(x)$.
            – Graham Kemp
            Nov 22 at 3:12

















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          I've looked over some examples and believe I have a solution.



          $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) =
          begin{cases}
          3 &&& text{for} quad0<X<1, & 0<Y<X^2 \
          0 &&& text{otherwise}
          end{cases}
          $$



          Then,



          $$F_Z(z) = begin{cases}
          0 &&& Z leq 0 \
          Bbb P (Z leq z) = Bbb P (XY leq z) = Bbb P(Y leq frac{1}{X}z) &&& 0<Z<X^2 \
          1 &&& Z geq X^2
          end{cases}
          $$



          Our support region is $$A = {(X,Y); |; 0 < X < 1,; ; 0 < Y < X^2} cap {(X,Y) ;| ;Y leq frac{1}{X} z}$$
          Integrating $f_{X,Y}(x,y)$ twice over this region, where the two "curves" $Y=X^2$ and $Y = frac{1}{X}z$ intersect at $(z^{frac{1}{3}},z^{frac{2}{3}})$



          $$ Bbb P(Y leq frac{1}{X}z) = iint_A3 dx dy = 3intlimits^{z^{frac{1}{3}}}_0intlimits^{x^{2}}_0 dy dx + 3intlimits^{1}_{z^{frac{1}{3}}}intlimits^{frac{z}{x}}_{0} dy dx \
          = x^3 biggrvert_{0}^{z^{frac{1}{3}}}+3z ln{x}biggrvert^0_{z^{frac{1}{3}}} = z - 3zln{z^{frac{1}{3}}} = z(1-ln{z})$$

          So we have;
          $$F_Z(z) = begin{cases} 0 & Zleq 0 \
          z(1-ln{z}) & 0 < Z < X^2 \
          1 & Zgeq X^2
          end{cases}$$



          then differentiate to obtain $f_X(x)$;



          $$f_X(x) = begin{cases}
          -ln{z} & 0 < Z < X^2 \
          0 & text{otherwise}
          end{cases}$$



          I'm still unsure about my interval for Z, but otherwise I believe this is correct?






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 1




            $Z$ will be supported over $(0,1)$, [the bounds should not mention either $X$ or $Y$, but be the result of their bounds, and we have $0< XY< 1cdot1^2$], and of course you are looking for $f_Z(z)$ when you differentiate, rather than $f_X(x)$.
            – Graham Kemp
            Nov 22 at 3:12















          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          I've looked over some examples and believe I have a solution.



          $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) =
          begin{cases}
          3 &&& text{for} quad0<X<1, & 0<Y<X^2 \
          0 &&& text{otherwise}
          end{cases}
          $$



          Then,



          $$F_Z(z) = begin{cases}
          0 &&& Z leq 0 \
          Bbb P (Z leq z) = Bbb P (XY leq z) = Bbb P(Y leq frac{1}{X}z) &&& 0<Z<X^2 \
          1 &&& Z geq X^2
          end{cases}
          $$



          Our support region is $$A = {(X,Y); |; 0 < X < 1,; ; 0 < Y < X^2} cap {(X,Y) ;| ;Y leq frac{1}{X} z}$$
          Integrating $f_{X,Y}(x,y)$ twice over this region, where the two "curves" $Y=X^2$ and $Y = frac{1}{X}z$ intersect at $(z^{frac{1}{3}},z^{frac{2}{3}})$



          $$ Bbb P(Y leq frac{1}{X}z) = iint_A3 dx dy = 3intlimits^{z^{frac{1}{3}}}_0intlimits^{x^{2}}_0 dy dx + 3intlimits^{1}_{z^{frac{1}{3}}}intlimits^{frac{z}{x}}_{0} dy dx \
          = x^3 biggrvert_{0}^{z^{frac{1}{3}}}+3z ln{x}biggrvert^0_{z^{frac{1}{3}}} = z - 3zln{z^{frac{1}{3}}} = z(1-ln{z})$$

          So we have;
          $$F_Z(z) = begin{cases} 0 & Zleq 0 \
          z(1-ln{z}) & 0 < Z < X^2 \
          1 & Zgeq X^2
          end{cases}$$



          then differentiate to obtain $f_X(x)$;



          $$f_X(x) = begin{cases}
          -ln{z} & 0 < Z < X^2 \
          0 & text{otherwise}
          end{cases}$$



          I'm still unsure about my interval for Z, but otherwise I believe this is correct?






          share|cite|improve this answer












          I've looked over some examples and believe I have a solution.



          $$f_{X,Y}(x,y) =
          begin{cases}
          3 &&& text{for} quad0<X<1, & 0<Y<X^2 \
          0 &&& text{otherwise}
          end{cases}
          $$



          Then,



          $$F_Z(z) = begin{cases}
          0 &&& Z leq 0 \
          Bbb P (Z leq z) = Bbb P (XY leq z) = Bbb P(Y leq frac{1}{X}z) &&& 0<Z<X^2 \
          1 &&& Z geq X^2
          end{cases}
          $$



          Our support region is $$A = {(X,Y); |; 0 < X < 1,; ; 0 < Y < X^2} cap {(X,Y) ;| ;Y leq frac{1}{X} z}$$
          Integrating $f_{X,Y}(x,y)$ twice over this region, where the two "curves" $Y=X^2$ and $Y = frac{1}{X}z$ intersect at $(z^{frac{1}{3}},z^{frac{2}{3}})$



          $$ Bbb P(Y leq frac{1}{X}z) = iint_A3 dx dy = 3intlimits^{z^{frac{1}{3}}}_0intlimits^{x^{2}}_0 dy dx + 3intlimits^{1}_{z^{frac{1}{3}}}intlimits^{frac{z}{x}}_{0} dy dx \
          = x^3 biggrvert_{0}^{z^{frac{1}{3}}}+3z ln{x}biggrvert^0_{z^{frac{1}{3}}} = z - 3zln{z^{frac{1}{3}}} = z(1-ln{z})$$

          So we have;
          $$F_Z(z) = begin{cases} 0 & Zleq 0 \
          z(1-ln{z}) & 0 < Z < X^2 \
          1 & Zgeq X^2
          end{cases}$$



          then differentiate to obtain $f_X(x)$;



          $$f_X(x) = begin{cases}
          -ln{z} & 0 < Z < X^2 \
          0 & text{otherwise}
          end{cases}$$



          I'm still unsure about my interval for Z, but otherwise I believe this is correct?







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 22 at 0:36









          Angus Pointer

          186




          186








          • 1




            $Z$ will be supported over $(0,1)$, [the bounds should not mention either $X$ or $Y$, but be the result of their bounds, and we have $0< XY< 1cdot1^2$], and of course you are looking for $f_Z(z)$ when you differentiate, rather than $f_X(x)$.
            – Graham Kemp
            Nov 22 at 3:12
















          • 1




            $Z$ will be supported over $(0,1)$, [the bounds should not mention either $X$ or $Y$, but be the result of their bounds, and we have $0< XY< 1cdot1^2$], and of course you are looking for $f_Z(z)$ when you differentiate, rather than $f_X(x)$.
            – Graham Kemp
            Nov 22 at 3:12










          1




          1




          $Z$ will be supported over $(0,1)$, [the bounds should not mention either $X$ or $Y$, but be the result of their bounds, and we have $0< XY< 1cdot1^2$], and of course you are looking for $f_Z(z)$ when you differentiate, rather than $f_X(x)$.
          – Graham Kemp
          Nov 22 at 3:12






          $Z$ will be supported over $(0,1)$, [the bounds should not mention either $X$ or $Y$, but be the result of their bounds, and we have $0< XY< 1cdot1^2$], and of course you are looking for $f_Z(z)$ when you differentiate, rather than $f_X(x)$.
          – Graham Kemp
          Nov 22 at 3:12




















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